wyman

It's less effective in this auction, when RHO has X'd, since LHO knows RHO has values. Certainly psyching a forward-going 2N when partner preempts and RHO passes is common and often effective. In either case, it's legal as long as you don't have an agreement with partner about it. But remember that when you're psyching, you're telling opps (and partner) a story. I guess this might work if RHO had 17-19 and LHO had 6-8, and your call convinces LHO that RHO has 12-14 and RHO that LHO is broke. But that's a narrow target. More likely if you're broke is that LHO actually has a hand, and you won't fool anyone. If you're planning to bid 4H or something, probably it's better to just punt and eat up their bidding room. After all, on 2H (X) 4H (4S), LHO can be really stretching, or he can have a really nice hand. This can make a slam decision tough when it comes back around to RHO's 18 count. Meanwhile, if RHO has the goods, and it goes: 2H (X) 2N (4S), or 2H (X) 2N (X showing cards or something, inviting penalties), RHO will know what's going on, and they'll be able to make better decisions.

Combining threads here (re: stop card and re: reserving rights). Is it appropriate to announce immediately that you are reserving your rights if LHO shotguns his call over your skip bid, as you might if LHO were to take 45 seconds before passing?

I have found this recommendation (and in one case, an admonishment for not calling immediately after the BIT/pass) from the last 3 (regional) TDs I've called after (BIT/pass) P (bid). A written clarification of the appropriate procedure would be nice, however. edit: thanks to Coel for posting that.

Had not seen this before. Nice problem.

Why is east's TD call premature? If there has been an irregularity, the laws mandate the immediate summoning of the TD. If there is any dispute as to the BIT, better to sort it out now. Also, it allows a TD to explain the laws about UI to the partner of the BIT-er. I don't think east did anything wrong, and calling him a scumbag seems wildly out of line.

So you should inform the table that partner has misexplained the bid? If you're going to do that, you should just call the director, since there's a clear irregularity. Yeah ok, you've convinced me. I guess it's the opps' fault for asking, and you should just explain what partner's bid actually means and call the director. KITN for me now as well.

The easy part is that he should have bid as though you explained 4C as a strong heart bid, 6+ and slam-interested. Re: explanation, I would have informed opps that "a 4D response to Gerber shows 1 or 4 aces". But I'd obviously call the director when the auction ends and explain what happened. Note that this is a "what I would have done." It's possible [and per Phil above, apparently it's the case] that the right thing to do is explain what 4D shows per your system and let the director sort out UI issues later, but especially given the way your director botched the swapped cards... Opponents get a KITN for asking for no bridge reason before the end of the auction period. You get a KITN for forgetting your system. Partner gets a KITN for blasting 7H, blatantly using UI.

I think I understand why bd71 is asking: So how does XYZ work in a Walsh style, where opener rebids 1N on all balanced mins (I'm accustomed to playing XYZ in a context where opener will rebid 1S with 4S and a weak NT)? Let's give responder an invitational hand with both majors, and opener a weak NT. How do we distinguish between responder being 44xx and 45xx, finding 5-3 heart fits and 4-4 spade fits? It seems like bidding 2C-2D-2S will have us playing 2N when opener is 2344, for example.

I would expect (4/5D) P (P) X (P) 4/5S Pass to be a popular auction.

I would treat this as 5-5 and open 1S. Lying about my relative length, especially with these heart spots, seems better than either reversing or burying the spades.

I think this isn't quite right. I can openly assess when I'm considering two calls. If I decide that it's close, even if I decide A > B, I can (and should) choose B if A is suggested by UI. In a case like this one, pass barely enters my mind, and I am not going to fall on my/our sword because partner hesitated. I'll make the call which I think is clear, and I'll be honest with the director and let him sort it out if I end up being wrong.

IMO, bidding (well, doubling) is suggested but pass is not an LA.

You can always preempt diamonds and rebid 4N to show more disparate suit lengths.

I'd jump with that hand, but if I had taken the low road and bid 1S, I think a jump to the 4 level is a cuebid now.

Bold 1) Opener can pass 2H, so he doesn't need to push to 3H. This is one of the strengths of XYZ. With an invitational hand and 6 hearts, this auction might have gone: 1C-1H; 1N-3H; Pass We can also have: 1C-1H; 1S-3S replaced by 1C-1H; 1S-2C!; 2D!-2S Bold 2) Opener made a 1-level rebid; his hand is not very strong.

My (present) inability to make inferences like this is one of many reasons I am not (presently) good at bridge. Very nice.

pretty sure he meant after 1D-2C; 3C

Oh for sure it's slim and not worth (seriously) considering.

? AKQ of spades, now 10, J 8 of clubs, pitching a diamond. RHO can ruff or not. Hearts are breaking by design so wtp?

Plus if you play for 3-3 spades and miss, you have the added chance of RHO 4=3=3=3.

1N is tempting too if pard has a sense of humor :P

If I played 4N = minors at these colors, I'd do that. Otherwise I'd pass and come in on the next round.

Why? Can't east be 3262?

"That's for both of us to figure out," is my honest reply when asked that.