MarkDean

I play transfer response to 1♣, and 95% of players play that a double shows the equivalent of an overcall in the suit named, while completing the transfer shows a takeout double. A few play that double is takeout of the suit implied while completing the transfer is natural. I have played Joe Grue's defense that Justin mentions before, but only against pairs who open 1♣ with all balanced hands, which may be a 1♦ opener in standard.

I think the difference between -600 and +500 is quite beneficial. What about the times when partner doesn't make the right lead, and instead makes a lead allowing it to make with several overs? I mean... you hold, say, Kxx QJxx Tx xxxx, what do you lead? I never hold that hand when partner doubles. I usually have: x xxx Jxxx xxxxx. I lead my spade, since in my partnerships it asks for a lead of my shorter major.

3♥ for both. I almost never go for blood with undisclosed support for partner, and KJ8 is certainly not the suit that would make me do it.

I would probably have had the same auction if I bid both hands. I also think it is an interesting play question if you are in it.

I would bid 4♦, and if 4♥ undoubled comes back to me, I would bid 4♠. It just seems to likely to me that 4♥ is coming around to me, and if I am going to bid 4♠, I would much rather have bid 4 diamonds last time than 3.

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=sakqt84h6da873c82]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♠ P 1NT! 2♥ (1NT = F1) 3♠ P 4♣ P 4♦ P 4♠ P ?

I play it as clubs. An opponent once had the majors and bid 4♣, then 4♦ when doubled, then redoubled when doubled in that. His partner did not read it, and +2200 was a good score for us.

Alright, I also thought it was a strong heart raise, even without discussion. That interpretation was not a great success.

Usually it is forcing for at least one round but not to game. In Bridge World Standard for example, it is forcing to the next level of partner's suit. So in your example, it is just forcing to 2♥.

Feel free to say what you think it should mean, but I also would like to know what you think it means when undiscussed opposite a solid player.

Here is an auction/hand from the loser's swiss. Playing precision with 2/1 GF. You deal, white/red, the opponents are silent, and the auction starts: 1♠ - 2♦ 2♥ - 3♦ 3♥ - 4♣ What did 4♣ mean? What is your call with AKJxxx K9xxx void JT?

I think that white on white, MPs, fourth seat, double would be reasonable. red/red, IMPs, I am passing like a shot.

To me, partner throwing his diamond is a big clue. If he had king length of spades, why would he throw away a possible trick, when he has an entry? So I place opener with the king of spades. If he has another one, we are dead. So, I would play for opener to be 1336 with the stiff king of spades, and play a heart, to knock out the entry, and mess up his transportation.

Four for me. Five feels a bit too rich, and three leaves LHO a convenient 4D bid if he happens to have both majors. Plus, I would bid 3 with a lot less offense at these colors (like if one of my diamonds was a heart). I am not close to opening 1 with a minor-oriented hand and little defense.

The player at my table (who I had heard of before, and I think is an expert) bid 4♥. I found that to be a massive underbid, but he won a big swing when the auction was duplicated and my teammate bid more, leading to 5♥ -1. Upon telling of this hand to somebody else, he also bid 4♥, so I thought I would check with you guys. Partners hand: KJxx Jxxx xx QTx (double would have been my third choice with that hand, but that is another thread).

I agree partner likely has 33 in the majors, so I would bid clubs. At the game level.

I think you may spectate too many random BBO tables.

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=s6haq8dqj5caq9653]133|100|Scoring: XIMP[/hv] Partner opens 1♦, you respond 2♣ game forcing, and partner bids 2NT. Unfortunately, your system here is rather lacking. You have the following knowledge: at these colors, 1NT is 10-12. (edited: If partner is balacned, he is 13-15, stonger balanced hands always open 1♣/2 level bids). You have agreed that partner would have rebid 2♦ if and only if he has five or more diamonds. That is the extent of your discussion on 1♦-2♣ auctions. What is your call/plan?

I got these numbers - no pivot tables - that concur with Frances' calculations. 10-12 0.042667213 11-13 0.048051471 12-14 0.050875245 13-15 0.050847073 14-16 0.047792177 15-17 0.042121701 except that the 13-15 figure rounds down to .0508 . I matched cascade's numbers. I cannot believe there are so many other nerds on here.

I win the ace and play another club. If RHO has 7 clubs, I plan on winning the likely trump continuation, and playing another club pitching a heart from dummy, hoping to ruff two hearts. If RHO has two trumps, it really increases the chances of the spade hook, and I fall back on that.

I have a bunch of problems from nationals, I will try to slowly leak them out. [hv=d=s&v=n&s=shak84daqj974ckj2]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 1♦ (1♠) dbl (3♠) (preemptive) ?

I must have terrible negotiating skills - I can never get put in a higher bracket, and, at least by ACBL standards, I am a younger player (29). Is there a trick to this art?

Why do I never seem to hear anybody mention non-leaping michaels when a hand like this is posted? I think this is a hard problem. I would bid 4♦, definitely pulling partner's double of 4♠. I used to pass hands like this, but a partner I respect always bids, and it seemed to me his decisions worked out better than mine on average.

I cannot answer for partner. Though it was online, perhaps he needed to be dummy to do something.

Do you mean that 1D-1S-2N is forcing? No, but, at least in my partnerships, 1NT/1♦ shows more than 1♠/1♦.