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Everything posted by MarkDean
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I do not play the non-serious 3NT convention. Does it mean "for the love of God partner do not bid past the four level because my hand is absolutely terrible for slam in the context of the auction so far"? If that is not what 3NT means, is that what 4♠ means? I know Han will call me an old man, but I would not have opened the hand.
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I agree pass is clear first time around. I would double 4♥. I would pass again if 3♠x comes around to me, regardless of what 3NT means. redouble is probably running, two places to play (forcing to the four level with 0445 or the like is not a good idea), so not sure what 3NT would mean. I would need really extreme shape to take out partner's red 3♠ to the four level.
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3♦ for me, thanks for the diamond ten.
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I thought I had addressed most of them, but, taking your earlier arguments one by one: At the risk of boring everyone: where did you answer or even acknowledge my concerns about how one goes about agreeing diamonds while inviting/slamming...and at most you said that you assumed that any user of this method would have at least a method of signing off in clubs and cuebidding with clubs as trump. That's not enough... surely the entire point of the gadget is to allow us to play in diamonds as well as clubs? I suspect the reason you didn't address these issues is because you can't find a satisfactory answer... I mean, even using an artificial 3♥ relay, we have limited bidding space with which to describe all of the various hand types responder may possess...Mark's 90 sec scheme seems dubious at best... a method that says we can never play 3N has to be weird when we have no sure fit, and any fit we have is in a minor. I find it funny that we have so many posts defending the utility of the bid, or at least calling it acceptable, and yet no-one deals with its obvious flaws. My scheme did allow for 3NT to be played. Responder can bid it immediately, or he can bid 3♠ forcing, and opener can bid it. Yes, there are flaws, but getting a pretty specific desription of your hand off your chest is useful: really if responder had to place the contract after 3♦, I think he would get it right a decent portion of the time. It feels like you are holding this convention to a very high standard. I mean I could say the same thing about the modern strong 1NT opener: what if we are too high? Can we find all 5-3 and 3-5 major suit fits, signing off, inviting or slamming?
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OK, think I got it. Play a fourth spade. Then play three rounds of clubs, ruffing the last one. If RHO has pitched a diamond, duck a diamond, and he can only return a red suit. If he has pitched a heart, play a heart to the ace, and he is down to just diamonds, and you can end play him. If he has followed to clubs, play a heart to the ace. If he follows, he is diamond tight, endplay him. If he pitches a club, diamond tight, end play him. If he pitches a diamond, he has the thirteenth club, so throw him in with it.
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I have never played the method in question, but it seems reasonable to me. If I could have two different 3♦ bids, I would certanily use this gadget, I just do not think it is worth giving up the splinter. Here is a possible method over 3♦ (obviously not perfect, I took 90 seconds to make it up). 4m = invitational. 3♠ = GF, nat 3NT = to play. 3♥ = forces 3♠, can pass, or continuations: 4m = slamming. 3NT = forces 4♣, to sign off, or bid 4♦ to ask about major suit dist or key card or something.
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After three rounds of spades, I would play king of clubs, ace of clubs, and ruff a club. If RHO pitches a diamond, give one up and claim. If not, play ace of hearts, and ruff a heart. Now play a small diamond off the board and endplay RHO. This only fails if RHO has two or fewer hearts, which we likely would have heard about in the bidding.
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I know that I am very much in the minority here, but I would not double with the North hand. It has 7 HCP outside of spades, and we are competing against the highest ranking suit, all red. Sure it could work out, but it could also lead to -200 or to declarer taking an extra trick from the additional info. I agree with South’s call, but it is pushy. I think bidding 3NT is really out there. This hand commonly has just one spades stopper: partner is marked with a stiff on the auction, and the chances that LHO has the ace and one of the Q/T seem pretty high. And where are we getting our tricks from that fast?
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OK, QTxx is a stronger holding than Q9xx, and I can see holdings where QTxx will do and Q9xx will not, but is the difference really great enough in your mind to make them your first and fourth choices and to state that you really do not like the fourth choice?
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I was not expecting these responses…perhaps I misunderstand the standard meaning of 2♠. I thought that it was usually a 2NT rebid without a spade stopper: is that standard? If opener does not fit responder’s major, and neither partner has a spade stopper, where are we going? To 5m when we do not necessarily have that great of a fit? It seems to me that often it will be right to get out in 3m.
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I think it is close, but bid 4♠. I just could not stomach passing if I bid 3 and 4♥ comes back to me...could be a double game swing.
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[hv=d=w&v=b&s=sk6h98642dkqj4ca3]133|100|Scoring: IMP (2♠) P (P) ?[/hv]
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In this auction: 1♣ (1♠) dbl (P) 2♠ (P) ? Which calls do you believe to be forcing by responder? As this double shows more than a response, do you think it is different from 1♣ (P) 1♥ (1♠) 2♠ (P) ? When this came up, our system was that all balanced hand outside of nt openers open 1♣: this obviously makes this auction harder, does it change what you think is forcing?
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Favorite NT Defense
MarkDean replied to mtvesuvius's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
I am very amused that natural is not a choice. I like natural with double being the majors against strong nt, and landy vs weak nt. I have had particaularly good luck with 2♦ natural. It often gets them to wrongside the contract, and partner leads my suit on the go through the strong hand. And 2♣ natural I also enjoy, but mostly because people look at partner and wait for the alert....and then ask...and then look confused by partner's answer. Our Spingold opponents actually looked at our card before the match and had a lenghty discussion about what they played over it. -
Why not just play small toward the queen and cash your diamonds?
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Ken, I think that if partner can make game opposite xxx JTxx xxx Qxx, he will not pass 3♦. To make a game try, I would want more, perhaps xxx xx xxxx Kxxx. I would not redouble with your example hand: my partners respond with almost any hand with five spades, so I am more interested in competing.
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Ooops, sorry, total brain fart, I left out a round of bidding. I will edit OP.
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[hv=d=n&v=b&s=skq63hdajckqj9742]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Opponents silent, partner opens, playing 12-14nt 1♦ - 2♣ (GF) 2♦ - 2♠ 2NT - 3♣ 3NT - ? <edited after Justin's post> 2♣ being GF is the extent of your discussion about 1♦ - 2♣ auctions. What is your call? In particular, do you think 4♦ suggests diamonds could be the right strain, or is it a cue for clubs?
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Why do you necessarily gain when partner has 2 spades? oops, I was being dumb, thinking we needed to let them in once less than we do.
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<retracted silly statement>
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1♦ for me. I also like to play 2NT as nat and forcing if possible. I would not bid 3NT unless I had to, and it had a very specific meaning.
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I am rather amazed that people think a 3♦ rebid is an overbid. What does a typical 3♦ rebid look like for you? Would you open and rebid 2♦ on Jx Jx KQxxxx Axx? It seems odd to me that rebidding 3♦ on an ace more, thereby solidifying the suit would be considered an overbid.
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1♦ for me - why is it that about half of the time Clee says a bid is terrible, I am making that bid?
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Oops, I should have been clearer, the opps silent, the auctions has started: 1♠ 2♦ 2NT 3NT ?
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So I also bid 2NT, partner bid 3NT. What now?
