nick_s
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Everything posted by nick_s
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I don't think 2♦ has necessarily promised club support, so it seems wrong to just leave partner in 3♣ over 2♠ when we're looking at QJTxx in his suit. 5♣ could easily be on: give partner the perfecto of: x Axxx xx AKxxxx. I'm bidding 2♠ followed by 4♣ over 3♣ (and hoping we don't have 3 diamond losers and a major suit loser).
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3rd in hand. Red vs White. Chicago scoring, but this is just a fun game. ♠ AKT9x ♥ KQx ♦ xxx ♣ xx 1♣ (p) 1♠ (p) 2♣ (p) ? This is from our regular Monday night f2f teaching session. My wife is still very much a beginner and had the problem above. Any words of advice for a beginner would be appreciated. I don't think I came up with anything intelligent.
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You are in 2nd seat. Red vs White. Mps ♠ KQ4 ♥ KJ865 ♦ 9642 ♣ 6 (1♦) ?
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You are in 3rd seat. Love all. MPs. ♠ 7 ♥ A9653 ♦ K4 ♣ AJ952 p (p) 1♥ (X) 2♦ (p) ? 2♦ showed a good raise to 2♥
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There's just about room for partner to hold a stiff Q♠, so a small spade is better. Agree with rest of your analysis though.
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3♣ ? I think N is too strong for 3NT, and there isn't a convenient 4-card suit to jump shift or reverse into. Sometimes you just have to lie a little :( I suppose N could always cue-bid hearts in order to force. Maybe I'm resulting a little :)
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How about: 1♦ (1♥) 1NT (P) 3♣ (P) 4♣ (P) 5♦ (P) 6♣/♦/NT
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I think the 2♣ opening is ok because you need so little from pard to make game in a major. Qxxx xxx xxx xxx or xx xxxxx xxx xxx for instance. Of course getting there is another matter...
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Last night, while waiting for the director to distribute boards and start play, one of the opponents shows me this hand: ♠ xx ♥ AJTxx ♦ AJxx ♣ xx Pard opens 2NT she says. I say I'll transfer. Pard responds 3H. Now what? 4D, I say. I bid 5H she proudly announces. Huh? This is a new convention I picked up at the last tournament she tells me. I respond as if partner had bid RKCB, so I'm showing 2 keycards and no QH. We got to the cold 6 hearts. That's an interesting idea I say and try to politely change the topic. This hand looks so unsuitable for something like that that it doesn't seem worth trying to explain. I mean: you don't know if you have a fit; you don't know if you're missing AK of either black suit... Regardless, with a different and more suitable hand, does anyone think this idea has merit? What do 5-level bids mean in this sequence anyway?
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MPs at the club. Don't remember the vulnerability. SAYC 15-17 NT ♠ KQ ♥ KT8x ♦ xxx ♣ T98x 1♦ (2♣) ? to you. The agreement you have here is that X promises at least one 4-card major. Is this enough to X? What will you do if pard responds 2♠?
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[hv=d=e&v=e&n=sxxxhktxxdaxctxxx&s=sakjxhaxxdjcakqjx]133|200|Scoring: MP (p) 2♣ (p) 2♦* (X) 3♣ (3♦) X (p) p (p) * Waiting 2♥=double neg[/hv] EW are solid club players Any blame here or a reasonable shot at MPs? Result 3♦X - 3 for an average minus. The field is in 6♣ making.
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Agree with this, but it's time to make an exception: 1♦
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I was wondering if there are hands that you would open in 2/1 but not in standard. I'm thinking specifically of hands where you don't have a rebid if the response is 2m. Something like: xx Axxxx x AKxxx I think this meets the usual requirements for an opening in standard, with the exception of not having a rebid after 1H - 2D. Just curious - and wanting to learn :) Edit: 13 cards now
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Pass. I don't have a good rebid.
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6♣ You can easily be off A♣ and a club ruff in 6♠, or A♣ and a spade loser, or even two spade losers, when 6♣ was making all along. When forced to guess, I'm after the best result possible, not the best possible result.
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To answer the question: I've no idea what he's doing. B) ...but I'm sure his agreements are better developed than mine. My (non-expert) interpretation would be that this is a takeout double (gasp!). Short hearts, support for the other three suits - in the context of the bidding so far. Looks like exactly what he has.
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FWIW my one-level openings are: Any hand with 13+ HCP or Any rule of 20 hand with 2 defensive tricks, no rebid problems, and ok suit texture. Jx J8 AJ9xxx Axx - no. Fails rule of 20. I'd open this 2D Axxx x AQxxxx xx - yes. And I don't think this is close. T98xx QJTx K AKx - yes. 13HCP (but I'm holding my nose) KJT 9 Txx KQJxxx - no. Not enough defense. This is a 3C opener NV 1st and 3rd. I used to use '7-loser hand' instead of 'rule of 20', but I've run into trouble too many times opening light on 3 suiters. I don't do that any more. Knowing that partner is promising 2 defensive tricks is occasionally useful when slam bidding. I guess this make my openings pretty sound. Of course there are exceptions to everything in bridge...
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Time to display my ignorance: I don't understand this auction. Can someone help? 1♥ 1NT 2♦ 2♥ Don't get this. This hand looks like a balanced invite to me, not a 6-9 signoff. I guess they must play this sequence as constructive but no fit. 3♣ 4♠ I see that opener is patterning out, and responder now knows there's a 5-3 club fit. But what is this 4♠? Evidently not a spade cue agreeing clubs. Edit: Just googled 'Bluhmer'. I get it now. 6♣ It's clear they're both on the same page though ;)
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East should end the auction after hearing 3♥. You have a combined 29-30 HCP and what is probably a misfit. The only way a club slam might be a reasonable shot is if West has 5 clubs. But wait! West has announced a balanced hand with a 4-card heart suit. West is extremely unlikely to have 5 clubs as well.
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How to bid these hands
nick_s replied to Alexcl's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
For me: 1♠ - 1NT - 4♠ I don't see how to find out if pard has working cards or not. I don't want to get left in 2♦. This may even turn out to be a good save against 4♥. -
I'm sort of pleasantly surprised that no one has suggested opening with this hand (yet). I wouldn't - but only because I can't stand a 2♦ response. Agree with passing now.
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Hi, This thread http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=33118 got me wondering about requirements for a 2-level overcall. I understand the motivation for allowing a lighter overcall with a 6-card suit, and it seems that it's becoming something of an expert standard. Of the people that consider xxx xx Kx AQxxxx an acceptable 2♣ overcall at favorable vulnerability, do you have a rule of thumb in mind? I notice that this hand for instance has 7 losers and (almost) 2 defensive tricks. Is that the kind of thing you look at? I realize that rules of thumb are just a starting point, just as they are for opening bids. But I think that a partnership agreement about what constitutes an acceptable 2-level overcall has to start somewhere. Thanks
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The poll is at 12-6 in favor of 1♦. I'm reconsidering my vote for 1♣. At the time, I was thinking: either minor is ok, but I'd rather have a club lead. I'm rebidding 1NT over 1♠. Now I'm thinking: pard may be able to raise diamonds because he'll assume I have at least 4. Pard may not be so willing to compete in clubs. I'd like to change my vote please.
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Maybe because you play a weak NT?
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Thanks for the lucid explanation. So a wide ranging 2♣ overcall is becoming standard in some (most?) expert circles. I remember reading Sabine Auken advocating this in her book also. I have two regular partnerships. I've discussed this with one partner and he doesn't want to play (1♦)-2♣ this way even though he understands the motivation. The other partner would just flat out call me crazy for even suggesting this. :) Just how widespread is this 2♣ overcalling style anyway?
