andy_h

1NT, wtp.

I don't get how people are thinking 2♣ gives the right heart message and 3♠ will overstate the heart values? Isn't 3♠ just saying to partner to like his heart+diamond+club values, and given we have ♦AQJ and ♣AQ, how many non-spade values are there that's left? And when we splinter, we are still able to deny a heart control to tell partner what the situation is if he has the worst case scenario of ♠Axxx ♥QJx ♦Kxxx ♣Kx

Andy, I realise that Stayman then 3x is now played as forcing. However, if you play 4-way transfers, how are these Stayman sequences better than transferring then bidding your major? That's what I have always done with the gain of super-accepts plus avoiding interference over 2♣. I guess that some use a minor transfer then 3M as a shortage. Is there any other reason to prefer the Stayman route on 4M/5m GF hands? I think it is very important for us to have the maximum amount of space to exchange information to determine which strain we belong in. The obvious example are the 5m4M GF hands. If the systemic way to show that is via transfer to the minor and bid the major, regardless if partner superaccepts or not, you have no idea whether we belong in 3NT or 5m because the partnership doesn't have the space to bid out values. (Eg. 1NT-2♠(clubs)-2NT/3♣-3♠. If opener has 1 red suit stopped and responder is 5431 with shortage in that red suit, is he now to guess what to bid? Compare that to 1NT-2♣-2♦/2♥-3♣, now the partnership has enough space to sort it out. If it turns out that the partnership doesn't have a fit for the minor and there's a wide open suit for 3NT, you might even get the chance to play in 4M on a 4-3 fit!) Also, the near slam zone auctions are now less defined because when you transfer to the minor and bid the major, if opener has a fit for the major he may be unnecessarily need to cue to give away info when responder might just be 10 high cards with no slam interest, but the auction is so high already that you get little information exchanged. (Eg. 1NT-2NT(diamonds)-3♣/3♦-3♥-? Is 3♠ by opener a 3nt probe? Or is it Agreeing hearts? Or is it a 2-way thing that might give responder a headache? Compare this to 1NT-2♣-2M-? If opener has hit responder's major, I think the standard expert sequences allow responder to 1) show any shortage (via 3oM), 2) have a GF+ raise in the major (via 4♣), 3) keycard (via 4♦).) Also, this allows what you had mentioned is that you can utilise a minor transfer and a 3x bid to show 6+m GF with a shortage which is perfect for a strain seeking of 3NT vs. 5m and it may produce a good slam too. Don't you just hate it when you have 6m and like 11highs with a major shortage, you blast 3NT and they run the first 5 tricks in your shortage when 5m is cold? Anyway, the advantages you gain are tremendous at the "cost" of the inability to show the 6-7HCP hands of (41)(62) which, in essence as I mentioned before, that the opponents may still help you out. And as to the point about the opponents interfering over 2♣ when responder has a gameforcing hand. I wouldn't mind at all if they interfere because that gives us even more information and it also allows us to penalise them when necessary. If they interfere at the 3level this would be a wash as they would also overcall had you transferred to a minor.

I'd bid 3♠, splinter. I don't want to forgoe the chance of the auction of partner supporting clubs and for us needing to bid some diamonds to definitely play in diamonds in case partner has a heart holding to protect (and thus losing bidding space). And also in case partner bids 2M over our 2♣ in which we might have a hard time setting diamonds and saying shortage in spades. I am definitely moving if partner bids 3NT over my splinter via 4♣. At least this still gives the added chance that if partner bids 4♦, we'd be able to deny a heart cue and bid 4♠ to confirm 1st round control.

1. My first stayman structure that I was taught was to stayman then 3m to show these type of hands. But that meant the 5+m4M GF hands require you to transfer to the minor and bid the major which wasn't good at all. Plus, the Axxx x xx Q10xxxx hands come up pretty rarely (if we have a spade fit, maybe the opponents will have a heart fit and interfere) and it just isn't worth it. 2. I will transfer to hearts and bid 2NT invite (or in my system, 2♠ playing retransfers). I don't think stayman is good because that becomes a wash when partner might superaccept over our 2♦ transfer. And by transferring and bidding 2NT, I think partner will be pulling to hearts almost always when we have an 8 card fit given the possibility of responder having an unbalanced nature of a hand. The 5M-5m invite hands are always the hard hands to bid, but I guess you just have to make do with what you have. Responding to the other sequences that were suggested: - Transfer then 3♥ lacking the 6th heart is a very big lie which could work out very badly. - Stayman then 3♥ over 2♠ is conventional for me showing an unknown splinter agreeing spades. Though I would have thought the 'standard' meaning would be a GF+ raise in spades (like a quant hand with support) - Status of 2♥/3♥ over 1NT-2♣-2♦ I would assume would be both majors sign off and smolen, respectively.

3♥. I think the auction is forcing, but not in terms of a sequence that you can use for a pass-then-bid type. Most of the time responder will just either bid 3x or double as he is short in spades. Or in other words, we should bid what we have now, given the competitive nature of the auction since LHO can still bid something. So there's probably a small case where opener has <3♥ and weak NT with responder having 5♥332 and an 11count where the auction will die out in 2♠. Ok, so it's technically not a 'forcing' auction.

What am I supposed to be thinking about? It's partner's lead.

4♣ because I have clubs. RHO's silence doesn't mean anything to me.

Pass and pass.

Ditto this. Usually with the 6-4s I can just splinter and then cue.

We're a passed hand and we have 5-6. If you're not responding 2♥ with this, then I reckon you are not using this bid enough. Yes, it's true that it's not perfect with this suit but nothing is perfect. I remember Justin advocated of using 2♦ as the drury with 2♣ and 2♥ as heart bids?

If 4♣ is natural, why is North bidding 4♠?

I also agree South needs to do more. With a suit, shape and controls like that, it should hardly be criminal to further investigate a slam and be at the 5level at least. While we are talking structure, this is what my partner and I play: 1NT-2♣ 2♦-3M 3NT- 4♣/4♦: 54(40) Slam try 4♥/4♠: 54(31) Slam try 1NT-2♣ 2♦- 4♣/4♦: Delayed texas, 64 Slam Try/Sign off 4♥/4♠: Slam try with 4♣/4♦

Transfer to diamonds and show a heart shortage. And no, I didn't think about opening gambling 3NT at red in third seat.

I'd 3♥ in all seats.

6♥. We have boxed our hand given our non-last train previously and now partner has forced to the 5level so we have a pretty decent hand for our minimum. If you feel this is too much then you at least have to bid 5♦ as a last train.

No qualms about 2NT at all. LHO doesn't always have to have AKT-6 for a w/r overcall. And I disagree about downgrading our hand. I don't see QJ as a huge negative for all we know they could be great filler cards.

1. Fred 2. Ritong 3. Reisig 4. Uday 5. Gerben42

Well I see the automatic transfer bid is the choice of the majority which looks IMO suicidal as our defense rates to really suck. I would try anything that might keep the opps out of 4♠ and that includes giving them plenty of leeway to play in 3♠. The best choice of call for that looks like 2NT which leaves the minors open to them but eliminates 2♠ as an option. 4♥ eliminates 2♠-->4♦ and 2NT eliminates just 2♠. This is an easy 4♥.

5♥. 6-4 bid more, especially if the 4 is partner's suit. I'm bidding to make but it may turn out to be a good r/w sac.

I think 4♣ is kinda in no man's land. It's a bid that isn't so destructive as it lets them in at the 4 level for the purpose of a hopeful constructive 4♠. It pretty much defeats the purpose of the preempt.

I agree with this. Some hands just look right for bidding it, so I guess one's preferred style comes with experience.

Why do you choose Axx over AKx? Both bids serves to give the message of "invitational" across, so surely 3♣ would be better as it allows partner to bid his 5 card (red) suit if he's able to explore game possibilities.

1. If 3♠ is asking for a stopper then that's what I bid with of course every intention of pulling to 4♠. If that's not available then 4♠ showing a bizarrely strong hand (hopefully not construed as minors with longer clubs). Failing that then I'll just blast 6♦. Ideally I'd like to double if partner is never passing it out but I don't want to risk that. 2. 3♦, if this ain't a GF then I don't know what is. 3. 2♥. Last 2 are wtps.