Quantumcat

There's no harm in always doubling with four hearts. You will always get another bid to express the strength of your hand and whatever other suits it contains. Then 3♥ can just be a bid saying "I'm don't have anything to add, except I have most/all of my values in diamonds and hearts"

Responder is not allowed to pass after opener's pass. That's what the word forcing in the phrase forcing takeout is referring to. I thought you were talking about the auction 2♣ (P) 2♦ (3♦) P (P) 4♣ (P) 6♣ (P) ?

No harm in opening, especially as you have spades, but you might come into difficulty later when your partner has a 13 or 14 count without a fit. You will probably end up in 3NT going down several, especially because it will be difficult to express the exact nature of your hand. It will be very difficult to stop in a partscore when partner has 13 or 14 misfitting HCP unless he is very understanding and sympathetic. Depending on my seat and vulnerability, I would pass, or open 2♠, or 3♠. In 1st seat not vul I would pass because there is simply no pre-empt I can make which partner won't take with several grains of salt, and we will miss any game we have. I might open 4♠, but that might mean going off a couple when 5♦ is cold. In 2nd seat not vul I would open 3♠. Vul, 2♠. I must have a rock solid weak 2 for that seat and vul, which is what I have (actually it might not be good enough. I'd much rather have QJT962 than AK5432).

Occasionally you have to get out at the 3-level. But a reverse promises the strength to make at least a 3-level contract opposite a normal minimum response so you are safe. If you have less than a minimum response, you probably have a good 6 card suit to make up for it (e.g. QJ9865 and nothing else). 1♣ - 1♠ 2♥ - 3♥ 3♠ - pass. If you have the agreement that you can respond on fewer than 6 HCP, it's good to have arrangements to be able to get out below game on some hands. Transfer rebids after a reverse are one such arrangement.

Do you mean he might be thinking about raising to 7♣? If the heart void was all he needed for seven, he would have started cue-bidding, not leapt to slam. He needs to double. Opener's pass is takeout, after the double opener will begin bidding suits he can play in, and so can responder. it might go X 3♥, 3♠ 4♥, then either pass or 4♠ depending on if you think your partner has to have at least 3 for his pass. Bidding a suit after the pass shows a suit that can be trumps without a huge amount of help from partner (e.g. Kxx should do as trump support). If you don't agree this, then you get into a nasty muddle on hands like this one.

Only problem with that is that your partner doesn't know that ♠Qx or ♠Jxx is a stopper.

This is what I play: (1♣) 1NT = takeout of clubs (1♣) X = takeout of diamonds (can be passed when responder has clubs) (1♣) 2♣ = natural (1♣) 1♦ = strong (any shape) (1♣) 2♦ = constructive (1♦) 2♦ = natural (1♦/1♥/1♠) 1NT = takeout (1♦/1♥/1♠) X = strong (any shape) (1 Something) 1NT (X) XX = 4 cards in the highest suit (usually spades, but hearts if the "something" was 1♠) (1 Something) 1NT (X) Pass = no five card suit, not 4 cards in highest suit (1 Something) 1NT (X) Pass (Pass) XX = start bidding 4-card suits up the line (1 Something) 1NT (X) Pass (Pass) 2 Something Else = 5 card suit "Strong" means 16+ HCP any shape, but with a takeout shape prefer to make a takeout. We play rubensohl after a double is interfered with. If the strong double or 1♦ does not get interfered with, 2♣ is artificial gameforce, about 8+ HCP, 1NT = 5-7 with stopper, jump in diamonds, hearts or spades = 5-7, 2NT = 5-7 with clubs, non-jump suit 0-7 might only have 3 cards.

If double is penalty and pass is forcing takeout (is this standard?), I'll pass and bid hearts over partner's balanced, nothing-to-say double. If he bids 3♠ or 4♣ (which should show OK suits, not 5-small or he should double): For spades I want partner to have the either the ♣K or ♥Q for 6, or else after a club lead and losing finesse and ♣A knocked out it will be hard to draw trumps and ruff out the ♥Q and be back in dummy at the right time. I don't think I can find out so I'd just bid 6♠ hoping he has one of those cards (plus the ♠Q which he should have for his 3♠ bid). For clubs, partner should have the ♣K for his bid, if he has the ♥Q as well 13 tricks look pretty good, but might be hard to find out, so I'd just bid 6♣.

The basic idea: Your transfer-rebid will either set trumps or show extra shape. Your next bid expresses values, or gives an idea on where you'd like to play. The next bid might be continuing to show shape, like a 4th-suit-forcing auction where you bid 4th suit then rebid it, to show you had a natural bid in that suit. 1♣ - 1♥ 2♦ - 3♦ 3♥ - 3NT Responder showed an extra heart but is quite happy to play in 3NT even with a heart fit. 1♣ - 1♥ 2♦ - 2♠ 2NT - 3♥/3♦/3♣ Responder has an extra heart/bit of a diamond fit/bit of a club fit, a balanced hand, and isn't too sure about 3NT, but opener can still play there if he wants to (responder made sure opener was declarer). If opener doesn't have 5/4 in his suits, 1 in responder's and a good 3-card stopper in the 4th suit, responder wants him to bid something other than 3NT. 1♣ - 1♥ 2♦ - 3♣ 3♦ - 4♠ 4NT - 5♦ 6♦ Responder set diamonds and then splintered to show slam interest, and that was enough for opener to ask for keycards. 1♣ - 1♠ 2♥ - 3♣ 3♠ - 4NT 5♥ - 6♠ Responder was originally intending to show 6/4 in spades and diamonds (by bidding 3♠ after opener's 3♦*), but opener surprised him by showing 3-card spade support, by not accepting the transfer. Opener must have a singleton diamond and that was enough for responder to ask for keycards. *A transfer to spades then 3♦ would be setting spades as trumps and cueing 1♣ - 1♠ 2♦ - 2♥ 3♠ - 4♠ Responder had QJxxxx xxxx xx x and was intending to sign-off in 2♠. Opener showed a 19 or 20-count with 3 spades and a singleton heart, so that sounded to responder like enough for game.

1♥-3♦(1) 3♠(2)-4♣(3) 4♠(4)-6♥(5) (1) 6-8 four-card raise (2) cue (3) cue, co-operating (4) cue, would be unlucky for 5♥ to not make (5) obviously pard is looking for a diamond control!

At my club last night a pair got to a bad game when one decided to pass her 12 count, the other opened, then the one who passed regretted doing so and bid game. She said "I'm not supposed to open 12s" when she put dummy down, then at the end of the hand when 3NT was one off, she said, "It was SUCH a good 12! How could I not bid game?" the two statements contradict a little. Here is a question to ask yourself if you are deciding whether to open or pass a balanced 11-12 count. If my partner was dealer and opened, would I force to game with my hand? Or would I just invite, then if partner didn't accept the invitation, respect that and leave it there? If you would just invite, then don't open. If you would force to game, then open. This is so partner can safely open a little light in 3rd seat with his 10-count or whatever and not worry about ending up in a stupid game contract, when his partner had passed an opening hand. It is also so he can safely reject an invitation knowing that your "maximum passed hand" is not really worth an opening hand. The sorts of balanced 11-12 counts that are worth forcing to game opposite an opening bid would be ones with very good five-card suits with some middle cards in it (jacks, tens, nines), every high card contributing (i.e. no queen doubletons, jack thirds), etc. Ones that are only worth an invitation would be 4333s, hands with bad five card suits with few middle cards (JT987 is better than A6543), and hands with queens and jacks spread over the whole hand. Also, once you make your decision that your hand is only worth an invitation opposite an opening bid, don't change your mind unless your hand improves very much (e.g. they open 1♥ and you have ♥Q97 which you originally thought was a bad holding. Now it's a good one). All this advice only applies to balanced hands. Unbalanced ones have good prospects of a fit, and good prospects of improving beyond their HCP count. Balanced hands have less prospect of improving, so you can usually judge their worth right away.

There was a bidding forum problem in Australian Bridge a long time ago similar to this, except responder had 5044 and opener had 1615, and 6♣ was an excellent contract. The winning bid was 4♣ from memory.

No. You should still have the ability to bid a suit naturally when the opponents might have only four. With my regular partner part of my system is a submarine 1♦ opening in 1/2 seat whenever we hold exactly four spades. The number of times the opponents have missed their 4♠ contract simply because they decided to agree a 1♠ overcall was michaels and not natural!!!

This all gets sorted out when you play transfers after a reverse. You can then set one of the reverser's suits, and for example make a splinter or whatever. Or you can transfer to a suit then bid notrumps, offering a choice of contracts. You can show hands that are slam-interest as well as just a normal response, then partner can judge accurately whether the values are there for slam or not. And of course with a very bad hand responder can make a transfer then pass. If opener has such a good reverse that he still wants to play in game opposite a complete minimum, he doesn't accept the transfer. Every hand gets sorted out and most of the time both partners know what the values are (partscore/game/slam) and all the time at least one of them does, and has to ability to force their way there without having to jump about and waste space.

OzOne is a team with a trainer funded by a generous millionare, in an attempt to make Australia be competitive on a world level. I think they were trying to copy the idea of the Aces. Can't say it's worked yet.

In isolation this is just your average restricted choice situation, no reason to go against it. However this might change when we see the rest of the hand, the opening lead, and the cards played by opponents to previous tricks.

Yes, 2NT would be the right bid by North, but South should try a double or a pass, since nobody knows what the weak-2 is, you can't presume partner will have spades, since their double won't be takeout (no suit to takeout of). If your agreements are inverted raises are still on in competition, then 2♣ is fine (not that that's a very good agreement!) For most people, 2♣ would be a weak raise, 6-10, and a good raise would bid 2♥. 2♥ does not show a shortage, it just shows a hand too good to bid 2♣, and you don't have a suit to bid of your own. However, when your partner bids 4♣, you know you want to play in at least 5♣. When your partner hears that you have a singleton heart, he MAY want to play in 6♣. So you may as well tell him about that before bidding 5♣, just in case. No one did anything wrong here since you didn't discuss this situation. Obviously it's better to have discussed these things, but you can't discuss everything, so taking the practical approach of ending in a sensible contract and getting a sensible plus score is the best you can do when you get a set of hands like this. Chances are the rest of the field are not seasoned partnerships and will end in the same contract as you anyway. And if there are some non-sensible people without seasoned partnerships, well they might end up in a stupid contract and you get a (shared) top anyway! The only time being sensible will get you a bad board is when everybody else is a seasoned partnership and finds the slam, AND there is actually a slam on. Being sensible will get you above average most of the time. BTW "being sensible" means that when you start getting into uncharted territory, just bid a contract you know will make and don't stress your partner out with undiscussed bids or he might bid something stupid and you'll end up in a stupid contract.

What do you do with a non-minimum hand with shortage in clubs or diamonds? I guess 3NT is shortage in either? Now you are a bit high before partner knows whether his hand is good for slam or not. How does he ask you which, while being able to sign off in game if he doesn't like it, and remain forcing if he does?

Yeah almost all the time, if your partner has mustered up a response to your one-level opening, then his default action after you bid your second non-reverse suit is to give simple preference. So if you have less than game-forcing values you are unlikely to miss game by not making a jump-shift.

In first seat you do it with almost anything. The point is to make the opponents guess whether you think you are making or not. Your partner has to guess too, but you get to pre-empt 2 opponents with only a small chance of missing slam so it's worth doing it with a HUGE range of hands. In third seat you bid it when you need only a convenient king or so with your partner to make. 3rd seat is less pre-emptive, your 4th seat opponent already knows he has a passed partner and is much less likely to bid over you. You don't want to be going one off when the rest of the room is flat in 2/3M making 140. In fourth seat, mostly the same as third seat except you really, really know you're making. At least in spades. If hearts, you can bid it with just a fairly reasonable guess you will make, in an effort to prevent them finding their spade fit and sacrificing/making over you, which might happen if you open with a delicate, girly 1♥. Second seat is a bit iffy, you don't want to have too good of a hand cause you could pre-empt your partner out of the auction and out of slam. But at the same time, the opponent knows they have a passed partner and are unlikely to bid with a questionable hand (thus you want to be making, not -50 against a flat 140 around the room). So, make it solid, but don't have a hand where two aces or an ace and a convenient singleton or queen or the like would make slam laydown. All the above advice doesn't take away from the fact that if you are fairly sure this is an automatic 4M opener for 75% of the room, forget the seat and vulnerability and bid it. If it's going down you will have company (i.e. not -50 against flat 140 around the room), and it it makes (especially in a Butler or Teams event!!) you don't want to be the lone soul with 170 on their scorecard. Oh and another plus to opening 4M with any hand, is you may get friendly defence and make more tricks than others who went something like 1♥(1♠)2♥(3♣)4♥ because the opponents have not the slightest clue as to their partner's distribution or point count.

1. Whatever system you agree to play over a 2♦ opening, North's double isn't very good. He was not strong enough to double then bid his own suit or to double then bid NT. He should have either bid 2NT (which is exactly what he's got) or passed, then maybe balanced with 2 or 3NT over 2♥, and double or 3♣ over 2♠. Since South knows there is no agreement over 2♦, he can't magically hope that North has a takeout of hearts. Therefore he should either pass or double for takeout. Both parties equally to blame. 2. North didn't do much wrong, he is quite happy to play in 4♣ if South has some ten-count or other with no values in hearts and four clubs (although it is silly to play inverted raises in competition, you have a cue-raise to show good hands now). South took a unilateral action that didn't let his partner make any decisions. He should have at least tried 4♥ before stopping in 5♣, that at least gives his partner some information upon which to base a decision. South is to blame. 3. Since you have no agreements, then North can't be expected to bid 4NT as an invitation, because you will probably take it to be blackwood. Likewise bidding 5♣ as a cue is bound to lead to disaster, South could take it to mean any number of things. North was just being nice and safe and collecting a positive score. Neither party to blame. By the way, how can the 2NT rebid be exactly 23-24 HCP? If you had no real agreements, I assume you didn't agree to play a Kokish relay. Really the 2NT rebid is 23+, which means maybe North might have bid 5NT pick-a-slam, with 23+ it would be very unlucky for a slam to go down (his pard holding exactly 23, and the cards not lying nicely). I will give half-a-blame to North. Total: South 2 blames, North 1 1/2 blames.

In the second one, maybe with one or zero hearts, with an extra spade, and with better quality spades (i.e. including the ten-nine or more), I MIGHT bid 4♠. Only cause of the vulverability, if North has a decent hand he is more likely to bid 5♥ than double. I want good quality spades cause missing the ♠AJT98, those are the sorts of cards that North will want to have to double, and if I have them, his choices are limited to pass or 5♥.

Cueing after a responder shows two suits after a NT opening usually agrees the second suit (if you were particularly enthusiastic about the first suit, you would have cued instead of accepting the transfer). So then 4♥ was a cue and denied the king of diamonds or a singleton, 5♣ showed 1 keycard (presumably the ace of hearts) 5♦ asked for the queen of spades, 5♥ said no (presuming you play 1st step no, 2nd step yes). Opener pretended to be interested in spades so he could find out about the spade queen. Partner has just the ace of hearts, and a doubleton or worse diamond. The spades aren't going on any mysterious club suit (he has a maximum of two clubs), so you can count only 11 tricks (three spades, five hearts, one diamond, two clubs) and will pass. Although if you DON'T play 1st step no 2nd step yes, and play trump suit = no, other = yes + king/other feature, perhaps he is trying to tell you he has six hearts and four spades (the extra heart being a feature). In that case, he has one club and two diamonds or no clubs and three diamonds. In both cases the extra diamonds can be discarded on your clubs and you will make 13 tricks (he has the queen of spades as well). So, if you play 1st step no/2nd step yes, then pass, otherwise, bid 7♥ :). [or 6♥ if you are very pessimistic, just in case he hasn't got the jack of spades and they break 4-1]

I have the philosophy that if the rebid after opening 2♣ doesn't almost completely sum up the hand, and you can possibly consider a 1-level opening, then I will open at the 1-level. I also have the philosophy that a hand made strong by distribution and not by high cards is better off being opened at the 1-level anyway. It is possible that 1♥ could get passed out and you are making game, but with such distribution the opponents are likely to come in anyway, and what could be a more perfect way to describe this hand than an auction something like 1♥ (2♣) pass (3♣) 3♠?

To decide, ask yourself if you are worth two bids. No? Then double over 2♣, and pass over 3♣ (assuming partner does not bid). This will show eight of your cards, as opposed to 2♥ then pass which will show only five. Yes? Then bid 2♥ and double over 3♣ (assuming partner does not bid). This will show nine(eleven - if you count the probable tolerance for diamonds) of your cards, as opposed to doublng and doubling again, which will show only eight(ten). If you bid 2♥, West should bid 2NT, because he has no extra values. If East has extra values, he will bid 3♠. If East does not have extra values but has four spades as well as his five hearts, he should have doubled the first time.