goobers

J95 AK862 KT QJ7 432 975 AQ2 AK53 South deals, 1C 1H 1N...

Not sure which side of the Atlantic you're on, but this side of the Atlantic I would expect 3D to be a splinter as well.

At our teammates table, the opening was 2H, at our table, the opening was 2D multi, a weak 2 in either major. I haven't defended against multi too much, so I just decided to pass this. Should I just have assumed a weak 2 in hearts?

all white, imps, RHO opens 2H Axxxx Ax QTxx Kx I'm forcing you to pass, LHO bids 4H, partner doubles How many of you would overcall initially?

Advancer's hand should be 2=3=4=4... I don't have the hand records, but I'm pretty sure we had T9xx AKJxx x Axx opp xx xxx QJxx Kxxx

If memory serves, it was xxxx AKJxx x Axx. I held the advancing hand and also raised, thinking to myself "I shouldn't be raising."

2nt. When the variables are the same, you simply add the coefficients together.

Oh yes, I'm used to 1m - 1H - 1N - 2S being 44 invite. Sorry, I probably should've been clearer in the original post, I didn't imagine jump reverses or reverses by responder when I used m/M.

The only explanation I've ever received about this convention is 2C relays to 2D, and 2D is a GF. So I guess the question is, how is this played? What is 1m - 1M 1N - 3M 1m - 1M 1N - 2C 2D - 3M 1m - 1S 1N - 2D 2H - 3S 1m - 1M 1N - 3m I assume 1m - 1M 1N - 3(om/oM) is 55 GF. Also, with 2C -> 2D, then 2N showing a balanced invite, a direct 2N relays to clubs, which allows us to get out in clubs, but otherwise is this relay used in some way? I'm sure there are dozens of sequences I'm still missing. If anyone could shed some light on this, I would be very appreciative.

Gut instinct is to draw trumps, try to drop the SQ, then finesse the diamond

w/w or w/r MPs, i can't remember 1S - x - 2S - ? Kxx xx xxx QT9xx

Your bridge partner is Will Ferrell!?

When I used to play NMF, I played the first auction as forcing. It just has to be opposite of what 1D - 1S - 1N - 3D is. I played auction 3 as 5-5 GF. Don't know about 2. Edit: I see ArtK already made the point that whatever the direct bid shows, going through NMF shows the other one.

RHO opens 2D, you have AQJ8x QJxx x Qxx

Doesn't 5♦ make? Doesn't partner pull 3NT? Assuming you get the diamonds wrong, 5D and 4S make. Will partner pull 3N? I have the same question

partner had Qxxxx Kx AQT9x x +150 is a good score, the DK is stiff offside

You deal at MPs unfavorable AJ ATxx Jxxxx Ax 1D - 2C - 2S - 3C p - p - 3D - p ?

What would 5D be?

[hv=n=sq973haqjt76dxcxx&s=sa86hdkxxxxcajxxx]133|200|[/hv] All vul west opens 1C

I mundanely try to drop the CQ before finessing the DJ

http://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/s...er20081203a.htm They lent money to people who would not have been considered before, which is not equivalent to saying they took excessive risks. They simply used a different method of evaluation. As someone else already pointed out in the thread, their rate of default is low.

To echo mikeh, I do not believe FDR's plan pulled the US out of the Great Depression. http://online.wsj.com/article/SB122541582835686689.html

http://poptech.org/popcasts/popcasts.aspx?...&viewcastid=214 I found this horribly interesting. It's about how people subconciously segregate to areas where others are like them, how they join clubs and communities that reflect themselves, where everyone has the same political view. He then discusses very briefly why this is a bad thing.

Judging from the comments, I think West is responding 2N to a double, even though the bidding diagram is in error. Fixed. Thanks.

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sxxxhk987xxd8caqx&w=saxhqtxxxdt9xxxcj&e=sktxxhadakjxxcxxx&s=sqj8xhjdqxckt87xx]399|300|Scoring: MP[/hv] p - p - 2H - x p - 2N - p - 3C p - 3D - ap 2N is lebensohl