Apollo81

The descirition was: Agreement is "responsive thru 4♥" I do not see, why this must imply that the double now is strict penalty. Responsive thru 4♥ does not imply that X of 4♠ is strict penalty imo. -Noble

♠x ♥KQJxxx ♦AQxx ♣Kx unfavorable, IMPs, against good players (3♠)-4♥-(4♠)-Dbl- (pass)-? Agreement is "responsive thru 4♥"

If I have a majors bid, then I would definitely use it. Otherwise I'd pass.

3♣ with a savvy partner. 4♥ (worried about spades) otherwise. The danger of bidding 3♣ with a greenhorn is that I may be propelled into 5♣ or 6♣against my will.

So for the people that bid 5♠: what would you do if LHO bid (and it went pass pass) (1) 6♣ (2) 6♦ (3) 6♥ me: 1,3: double 2: pass

4♠ is wrong because: (1) you are sure it is right for the opps to bid over 4♠ (2) under no circumstance will you sell to 5x (3) you are very confident that 5♠X will be a good score The same criteria are not true a level higher, so 6♠ seems overexuberant. Therefore the right bid is 5♠. -Noble

MPs ♠AT7 ♥Q975 ♦AQ3 ♣T73 1♠*-(pass)-? *10-15 This is the bidding treatment you are using: - semi forcing 1NT response - 2♣ showing a GF with 3+♣ or a 3-card limit raise. Partner bids 2♠ if rejecting the LR and anything else (natural) if accepting. (2NT would show an accept with 6+♠) My preferred treatment on this hand is to respond 1NT, then: a) if partner bids 2♣, rebid 2NT c) if partner bids 2♦, rebid 3♠ (LR) d) if partner bids 2♥, rebid 4♥ e) if partner bids 2♠, rebid 4♠ To what extent do you agree with the above responding strategy, given the bidding treatment you're playing?

4-card limit raise. -Noble

Auction is: (3♥)-pass-(4NT*)-??? (pass)-pass-(5♥)-Dbl * some form of RKC or Blackwood or whatever Not looking for "my partner and I play this as..." or "the best way to play this is...." I'm looking for how you would interpret these auctions at the table with a first time expert partner if undiscussed. I fear some may misinterpret what is being asked in the poll; the first double is obviously cards. I am asking what the second double means if it was (1) preceded by a double (2) preceded by a pass

1) The auction begins 1♠-(2♥) and you hold: a) xxx Ax KQJxxx Qx bee) xx Ax KQJxxx Qxx c) xx K107x KQ7x Jxx (partner reopens with a double) Do you do the same thing that you would do with these types of hands in standard (if you held 2 fewer HCP) or do you have a different philosophy? -Noble

1) pass; there are probably more options in 4♠ than in 5♦ opposite a void. 4) Dbl 4NT then 5♠, as partner is unlikely to hold more than one diamond for his pass of 5♦.

I think 3NT begs for a passout. Why should they double when you can make (potentially) any higher suit contract?

4♣, planning to pass 4M (or raise ♦) This hand has too much for a NF 4♦, however encouraging it may be. 3NT seems silly - it is hard to construct a hand consistent with the double where this is right. (most such hands should instead overcall 3NT)

#3 You could have made a takeout double on the previous round.

What? Pard would never dare to disturb a 3NT bid by us and that goes a couple down on a spade lead. Better 3♣ +2 than 3NT -2, no? Right but LHO will clearly bid 4♠ with his 6-5 hand (which is cold) over 3NT, and then partner will bid 5♣.

I have to say I am disappointed with these answers so far. I think it's ridiculous to assume partner has a bad hand here when he comes in at the 3 level at unfavorable into a game forcing auction. BTW why is responder here psyching if he has, say a 6520 hand with few HCP? Maybe he wants to get to hearts when it's a 5-4 fit and spades otherwise? The partnership may have game values despite a minority of the HCP. I don't consider this a psyche. Both sides may have a making game on any deal. Just because one side forces game doesn't mean the other side doesn't also have a making game. Shame on anyone who passed here. Any of the bids mentioned here should get partner to bid your game. He has ♠x ♥x ♦KJxx ♣AK109xxx

♠Qx ♥AKQx ♦K108xx ♣xx ♠Kxx ♥xxxx ♦Ax ♣Axxx white IMPs 1♦-(pass)-1♥-(2♠) 3♥-(all pass)

♠ xxx ♥ Kxx ♦ AQxxx ♣ Qx unfavorable, IMPs (1NT*)-pass-(2♦**)-3♣ (pass)-???? *) 10-13 **) game forcing Stayman

2NT, and happy to be NV

If their methods allow for making a different raise with 4441 12-counts and the like (as mine do), then passing 11 and 12 HCP hands in this position is not so strange. Also, maybe this was a mistake? Good players do make mistakes. -Noble

#1) N deals: 1NT-2c*-2d-3s*-4h-4s*-5h-7NT *Stayman, Smolen, Kickback S deals: 1h-2c-2s-3h-4s*-5h-7NT *Kickback No fancy methods needed. -Noble #2) Insta-double, no matter what it means.

Bids should not change meaning based on form of scoring IMO. Style can change of course. #1 is probably a regional variant. My personal preference is NF and to use the cheaper of the 4th suit or 2NT as the forcing punt for bad hands. Im sure this has been mentioned on this board before. #2 I'd expect most people to play this as forcing. #3 I'd always bid 2♣ since I'm at favorable and the opening is 1♦.

Insta-double

Is there really a point to fit jumping on this hand? I would bid 6♦. They will make 5♠ most of the time, but I don't know whether they can make 6♠. If partner frequently opens weak twos on 5-baggers, I might go with a conservative 5♥ call, inviting partner to sacrifice. -Noble

So it seems like there will be no BBO vugraph at all in Thailand? Is this right?