benlessard

My hand was AKxx Ax xxx AJTx Maybe I could have 1NT instead of 1S to show 17-18 bal but I had no spots. I guess that there is still some chances to avoid a S lead in 3NT so game is better than 50%.

WTP pass for me. The odds of 5Cx for -500 or worse are higher than those of 5C making.

I dont see why ducking the D. If the D are Kx--JTxx they are going to get the ruff anyway. If the D are KTxx--Jx im likely to have 2D losers anyway since I wont be able to ruff the D and the S. So win on dummy and ill play a S. if they return club ill even play D from dummy to be able to finesse against west.

its simply a transfer scheme Pass= 0-5 with 3S 1NT = inv or weak with H+C 2C = 5D weak or H+D gf or Bal Gf 2D = 6H inv or 5C+H gf 2H = S inv (4) or H+S GF 2S = low short H+C GF 2NT = 2524 rest is 1534 etc.. our nt range is 2 pts, but 15-16 & 19-20 are together so when responder is 6-8 we will play 1nt/2M vs one and game vs the other. If opener is 17-18 its 1C-1D-1NT or 1C-1D-2H (18-20 with 4H). Here the bottom line is simply do you downgrade a 9 count (to 8 pts) with no aces when it look like a misfit. At the other table you know they will be in game. Either its 1NT opening or 1S-1Nt-2m-3m-game.

In some cases its true that the X is more useful as a good raise than as a t-out, most of the time 2 way is even better. In the op example i prefer plain responsive since 2D could be the winning spot. Unfortunatly there is not a lot on theory on those things. Something like.. 1H-(1S)-3H-?? here you could use X as 1- To play 3S 2- to compete to 4m or both minors. a direct 3S/4m is forward going, 3NT is to play. X and 3NT is both minors standard responsive X. 1D-(1H)-2D-?? I think it could be playable to play that X is to compete (could be weakish with 3H or responsive) while all the other bids are forward going and show values. I wouldnt play 2H as a precise limit but more like 8 to bad 12.

[hv=pc=n&s=shjt532dkqj5cq984&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1dp1sp]133|200[/hv] Imps. 1C is 15+ (often bal) 1D is H or pts (often 6-8) 1S is bal without 3H (15-16 or 19-20) or 5S unb 15-17 or 5C+4S 15-20. your options are 2C= H+D Gf, you will likely be forced to show your 0544 shape ending in 3S unless partner got 6 great spades or good hand with clubs. 1NT= not forcing, tend to show clubs or many invitationnal hands. partner will only pass 1NT with 15-16 pts and without 3H. either bal with 2H 3244,4243,4234,5233,3253 or unbalanced with 5143,5242,5134,5224.

Yes I agree with rhm, playing a PC I would try to open 1C with clubs hands with 4M but I don't have enough exp playing reg PC to work out the details. My point is that going from 5-3 (minimum for clubs & D) to 6-1 is a terrible deal. If you already have a lot of bal hands with only 2D than the damage is alread done so at this point its a different story. I also hate 2D prec so that doesnt help. I personnaly think the reg precision scheme 13-15 NT 1D could be 3 unbalanced 2C could be 5c4M is pretty good all you have to do is lower the range in 3rd seat to 12-14 and 15+.

Thanks for putting it, I didnt want to put it on my account too early since Ive got some clever friends who spot those things. Im somewhat surprised at all the clubs leads under the jack. One annoyance ive got with the full hand is its possible to bid 6NT instead of 6S with with no positionnal values and no shortness in both red suit, if the S dont run I need partner with AKQ in D or KQ of H for 6S being better than 6Nt (wich mean that hes not going to have the Q of clubs) the best chance is that the guy with 3 trumps got 3/4 clubs. I think I see more construction where partner got AQ/KJ in the reds this is mostly true because of the no doubles East is more likely to be in the blind for lead. If the spades run 6S will be better than 6NT when clubs break 4-1 but again there is cases where 6NT is better. However those minus -300 or -400 might tilt the imps calculations to 6S.

[hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1cp1dp2dp2sp2np3cp3hp3sp3np4cp4dp]133|100[/hv] 1D is H or pts (gf bal or 6-8 inv) 2D is almost GF (22-23 pts) 2S is GF (often gf bal or with 4H) 2NT is 22-23 bal 3C is romex stayman 3H is exactly 4H may have 4S 3S is 4S (denies 4H) 3NT denies 4S 4C show bal GF with 4S+4C without 4H here its undiscussed but since responder cannot have 4D I would take 4D as showing 5. Our rule is bid that can be natural are natural others are rkc responses agreeing fit (except the NT bids) so after 4D, 5C would show 2 no Q (and a 4234 by inference) 6C (extras for 7D) ---7D yes. IRL ill probably be in 6D however.

I think 7D is a mistake, your not even sure to have an entry into opener hand. Im not saying that its going to be easy after 3D but at least you will be in a better position. Maybe its logical that a direct 6C implies that you dont have 2H. ex 3D-3NT 4D-4NT (neg) 6C since youve allowed partner to cuebid 4H you should have 2H+solid D. vs 3D-3NT 6C Here partner should understand that Ah,Ks are the winning cards.

I forgot to tell but i was suggesting a scheme for when 5C+4M is possible, IMO you first have to look at what your system responses is going to look like before choosing if it good for you or not. AS for 6C or 5C if you already have bal hands in 1D (4423) opening keep 2C with 6 and open 1D/1H (i slightly prefer 1H) with 4414 and 4405. If you dont have bal hand in 1D than its a no brainer to make 1D=4 and 2C=5 like polish club.

What I suggest is to play 2D = GF or inv long M 2M inv with 4 or 5M 2NT = INV (could be inv long D) 3C = Inv rest is GF with good suits. You may use 2D-??-3C as INV with clubs so 2C-3C is preempt. so after 2C-2D-?? 2H = I refuse a H inv ----2S inv with S ----2NT GF ----3C GF (or inv) 2S = I accept a H inv but refuse a S inv all is GF 2NT min but accept both M. rest is GF So basically you get a 2D relay except you have 2 way to inv and stop in 2M. The drawback is that opener is showing a short suit rather than where hes got 4, but if responder is GF it shouldnt change anything most of the time. The oterh cost is after 2C-2D-2H the relay is 2NT not 2S.

Unfortunatly few of the big gun choose to vote yet. The comments are weird IMO, like the D finesse thing (by one of my partner btw :ph34r:) you have the Jd in your hand so if declarer got the Qd hes happy the KD is in RHO so Xing will encourage him not stop him (howewer if north got the AQd they might play in 6Nt). Also few commented on the IRL aspect of the problem, you have a lot of pts, they make a slam try, if they bid slam partner partner is likely to be broke so X will be at least very tempting so even if you think passing is best will you be able to pass 4D in tempo ? IRL ive seen many BIT pass that barred the leader and still help declarer anyway. Another way to see it is you got a near overcall and opps are bidding slam, its unlikely (and lucky for the non doubler) that partner got a club card & D cards; if he hold only one of these cards are you sure you don't want to double 4D ?? Note there is vienna squeeze if declarer got the Dq and you dont get a D lead. As for the lead IDK, partner wasnt able to X 4D or 5H so I think ill lead D but im not 100% convinced about it, but like Gnasher if partner doenst have the chance to X 5H ill lead H before leading D.

lol.. Timo want me to put the lead or the lead directing X as a problem ?

I know I would auto X 4D here (im pretty convinced its losing bridge not to X) but anyone lead a 8H instead of a D here ?

For every 41??/51?? vs 46?? you will get the same amount of ?1?3 vs ?6?4 where 3C will be bad, but at least you are one level lower and you don't have the 5??3 vs 3514/3505 to worry about. The best is simply to play KI and use 1NT as artificial instead of 2C. 1H-1S-1NT 1NT could be Gaz,Riton or transfers etc.. it doesnt really matter, almost anything will be better with 1NT art than with 2C as art.

Yes, there is. Do you have a link or its not available ?

I dont really have the time to read all of the above, im wondering if there is a text of the defense arguments/rebuttal in english ?

Im not talking playing weak 2 im talking 2M being equivalent to 1M-1?-2M so 1M-1?-2M become 5M+4C.

Im only interest in majority opinions when its to know what is considered "standard" for when i play with a random/unknown partner. But for the majority of polls im interested in top level individual answers not numbers im pretty sure most people I know care more about expert opinions than about majority opinions unless they are in politics or marketing. I don't think the lead and the failure to double are irrelevant in this problem. They have a real life influence on the odds and distributions of cards even if they are undisclosed and subjective informations. Overall here I don't know wich line is better but I find the D lead odd. The classic case where I still see top level players miss is this one.. you have 9 trumps missing the Q and you have a sure outside loser. If you get a spot lead that has some risk you should finesse vs LHO even if the odds for the drop are a priori 52% while the finesse is 48%. The reason is that with trumps xx-Qx you are going to get a trump lead some % of times. While they will never lead trumps from Qxx-x so when you cash a big one from your hand and play low to dummy and lho follow twice the trumps are more likely to be Qxx--x than xx--Qx. This is of course not true if you get a lead from a sequence like JT(9 or 8).

Good point about both Qh and Qd, maybe with QJ of D and Qh its dangerous to X 4D because its telling too much but at the same time it could break an endplay. However I disagree about the need to make an agressive lead here, dummy is 12-14 bal and didnt show a real suit, bidding 4NT keycard is often a sign of a club shortness, when you know partner doesnt have the K♣ the hand go up in value. Curious to see the full hand and curious to see why east didnt double.

Never said it was safe ive said SAFER than D. As east with Qxx in S and Kxxx(x) I would you X 4D 100%. With QJxx its less clear but I like double too since its highly unlikely that the cost is going to be higher than the benefits vs good players. For sure If east turn out with 2 D honnors ill put the hand on BW to see if East should have made a lead directing X. and if west underlead from 2D honnors ill put the hand as a lead problem its going to be interesting one way or another. We will see if my reasonning beat Timo 100% confidence :)

Why club is out ? with 98x 987x etc 876 clubs look safer than D for me. Note partner didnt X 4D too. With Qxx of S he might X agressively to get the D lead.

Im surprised nobody take the lead into account. Why would west make an agressive lead under a D honnor here ? North didnt show a control in clubs and didnt a show a real suit. Im more agressive than passive when it come to leads but here i wouldnt lead under Hxxxx, Hxxx if I have a safe alternative. In fact when I get low spot lead like this vs top notch players I tend to finesse in S one way or another (but not here obv). The 52-48% odds no longer applies when you get a non-S lead.

2M is way safer with 6M than with 5M+4C and its not close at all. Its also got a higher frequency and more premptive power (easier for partner to raise) and its less likely to lead you to a bad partscores in uncontested. No brainer imo.