Orla

Playing with two different people, these hands came up. How should you bid them? 1. ♠ 8 ♥ A 8 4 2 ♦ A K J T 3 ♣ A Q 9 (18 HCP) 2. ♠ A K 3 ♥ Void ♦ A Q 5 4 ♣ A Q 9 7 5 3 (19HCP) Normally, after a 1 - suit opening, opps would double intending to show strength by bidding own suit after any response by Partner. However, what happens when it is a weak 2 opening? Do the same rules apply? Soooo, on the above doubles what do you bid (be objective and forget you have seen the doubler's hand) holding: 1. (We vulnerable against non: dealer opens a weak 2♥), double, pass ... ) ♠ Q T 6 5 3 ♥ K ♦ 6 5 ♣ K 8 7 6 3 2 2 (All vulnerable, IMPs: This hand, dealer, passed, N bid a weak 2♥, double, S bids 5♥!!!! ... ) ♠ J 8 7 4 ♥ Q 5 ♦ K T 8 6 ♣ K J T :) rla

Isn't it true that when opponents double our opening bid, it is correct to redouble to show 10+ points? If this is so, is it law? Well, that is what we play, however this hand came up tonight and it kind of puts everything into question Ok let me show you the hands Playing MPs, all vulnerable, I (dealer) had: ♠ K 8 5 ♥ void ♦ A J 9 6 5 3 ♣ K 10 9 7 I open, LHO doubles partner redoubles. RHO bids 1H.... ok bidding goes: 1♦ - X - XX - 1♥ 2♦ - 2♥ - 2♠ - 3♥ 3♠ - X ....... The redoubler was holding: ♠ 10 9 7 6 3 ♥ K 5 ♦ Q 7 ♣ A Q 8 2 Looking at it, after the board has been played, I think the redouble is terrible. I think redoubling and then bidding a suit (with XXXXX) - that the doubler has shown 3+ cards in - is suicidal. Soooo, now the problem is, consistency: If we say: "redouble = 10+pts", then any other bid by my partner is a fib. Personally, on that hand, I would have preferred P to bid 1♠ after Opp's double, but is that wrong? :) rla

Your argument is so convincing. ROFL :lol: RLA

This situation came up at our table tonight. I opened 1♦ in third seat. LHO doubles. He is holding: ♠ A K Q 5 3 ♥ K T 9 4 ♦ - ♣ A Q T 7 His Partner bids 1♥ holding: ♠ T 7 ♥ J 7 6 5 3 ♦ K Q 9 8 4 ♣ 3 I bid 2♦(had 6) and LHO now bids 2♠, which his partner passes. Mr X had nothing better to do than to berate his partner, telling him that "pass" was not an option. I disagree. I would have understood that we had a misfit. What I am really getting at is this: Why not "support" partner('s bid) (instead of "berating" him)? If he really really really wanted to force his partner to bid, why not bid ♦ after the ♥ bid - implying the suit fit? What did he want his partner to bid? Repeat his scrawny ♥s? 3♠, with his doubleton? (How will Mr "Advanced" know that his partner has a 2 5 distribution and not a 3 4 distribution?) (declarer made 2♠+1) I think Mr "Advanced" should have either shown the ♥ support, or cuebid ♦. Also, I think Mr "Advanced" should not leave the table in a huff after the hand, because, IMHO, his intermediate partner was not to blame. End of rant. :P rla

North is dealer East is holding: ♠ 3 ♥ 10 8 5 ♦ A K Q 5 3 ♣ K Q J 8 West has: ♠ 9 7 4 ♥ A J 7 6 ♦ J 9 7 6 ♣ A 3 Bidding goes (North opens) 1♣ - 1♦ - P - 1♥ .P - 2♥ - P - 3♦ East now bids 4♥, all pass. Do you agree with the bidding? How would you bid the hands? ;) rla

You have probably hit the nail on the head here. I guess I assume that I play SAYC, but have actually never looked at "The Document"!!!! Is it available on the internet? Do you know where to find it? :) rla

As is often the case, this was a pick-up partner. We played one hand .. this one. He left. With all the amount of information you want to impart, there is just not enough room in one's bidding profile to say: "A jump bid of 2NT = ??" In future I will continue to hold the 2NT bid as 11-12HCP and decline/accept the "invite/game force" or whatever you call it, as I deem fit. If I incur the wrath... B) :lol: rla

Not 100% sure I understand this. "An immediate jump to 2NT is game forcing." How many points would this hand have? Is it game forcing in NT? What is my response? I have a 12-point opener, do I bid 3NT? What do I bid if I have an 18HCP opener? Do I have to guess what s/he is forcing me with? If my partner had enough points combined with a minimum opener, would it not be s/he to bid game rather than "force" me to? Ditto on the "invite" 2NT. Is not a bid of No Trumps a limit bid - whether opening or responding? Would it have different parameters if you bid a suit first? As far as I have been playing: If P opens and I have 13+pts, if I have a suit, I will bid it. If P shows no interest in the suit, my next bid will be 3NT - because the maths says 12 + 13 = 25 = game. :) rla

Every so often a new one comes up. Here is my latest one!!! I was holding: ♠ K Q 6 4 ♥ A T 8 4 ♦ 7 2 ♣ Q J 4 P was holding: ♠ J 9 8 ♥ J 9 7 ♦ A Q J 9 ♣ A K T I open 1♣ P bids 1♦. After my 1♥ rebid, P jump bids to 2NT. So what does 2NT mean? I understood it to be 10-12pts, inviting me to bid 3NT.. After playing the hand and leaving without a word, someone told me that it was game forcing. I asked a pal and he told me that 2NT after my first bid is 11-12 pts, but not if he jumps after he had made a suit bid. If this is so, it is a new one to me. Why not bid 3NT immediately? Why bid 1♦? Why 2NT after 1♦? :angry: rla

hahaha, Pedro. The problem is/was, I guess I should not have bid. Then Opps will find their game or partscore. RHO had: ♠ A J T 5 ♥ Q J 7 5 ♦ 7 ♣ K Q 8 2 Now he could have doubled for the majors, but I think many will not double with 4 cards in the bid suit - what does he do if his partner responds 2♦? LHO had: ♠ K 8 3 ♥ 10 ♦ A 8 4 2 ♣ A T 9 7 5 Had I passed, I guess he might have balanced or left the 1♣ in. 1♣ was played twice - down 5. Not easy finding a contract. Some whaccky bidding, too. Some examples? 1♣ - X - P - *1♦ 1♥ - **1NT - P - 3NT (they made +2) * (this is the problem I mentioned above) ** (I think 1NT, after the double, should imply 16+HCP) Next one- North opens 1♥ (Acol? - but then why not weakNT?) West bids 2♣ East bids 3NT. (they made +2) Now here is a good one!!!! North opens 1♣ - X - P - P(for penalties - good pass) 1♥ - P - P - *2♦ P - **2♠ - P - 3♣ P - 3NT (they made +2) *(this is why I say E should not double, because W thinks E has support in the unbid suits) **(what is this promising? 5 spades and 16++++ pts????) Etc etc etc Does make me think that my 1♦ may have been the least worst :P teehee

This is what I do not understand. This is exactly what my partner said when she explained why she skipped the ♥♥♥♥s. Telling me that: "in "standard SAYC": Opening 1♣ and then bidding ♥/♠ would show 5 clubs and 4 hearts/spades". This is the first time I heard that. If it is "standard SAYC", what "standard" system uses the "convenient/better" minor, when they play 5-card majors and therefore cannot open ♥/♠ with 4? Looks to me like, what you are saying: "In this system, Opener can never show his/her 4-card major suit." I think that, in future, I will make an expressed agreement with my partners that when I respond to 1♣ with 1♦ I am not denying a 4-card major and, should partner have one, bidding it should take precedence before an NT bid. It is all a question of partnership agreement. :P rla

Hi Ron, yeppers been a long time - hope I remembered your name correctly. What you have just said is pretty well what my partner said yesterday. It was new to me, which is why I posted it. You know when you learn something new, you try to make sense of it and take it on board. I have huge problems understanding this. When my partner says that it is "standard" SAYC, I can hardly believe it. And, judging from some of the responses, some do not consider it "standard". When I came across this Walsh thingy, I hated it. When I play with a pick-up P, I often say that my responding with a minor does not deny a major. You are all talking about describing your hand, but I feel that skipping a 4-card major in doing so, is a contradiction. What is wrong with testing the waters? Why have we been given "convenient/better" minors? When you have a "balanced" hand your partner may not. Your partner has a totally unsuitable NT hand, yet you have chosen to take away all possibilities of finding a suit contract. What happens when you have no communication with dummy? Given the hand yesterday - I will repost it: ♠ Q 6 4 ♥ A K 6 2 ♦ Q J 6 ♣ J 6 4 If you were playing weak NT, you would open it 1NT. Given my crapola, I would not have left it in. I would have bid 2♣, P would have responded 2♥ and that would have been our end contract. If P had opened 1♣ and I was disciplined(?) and passed with my 3HCP, we would have been in 1♣ down 5. If the bidding had gone as I had hoped: 1♣ 1♦ 1♥ pass, then we would have been laughing .......

Well, let me pry the can open more, and ask it this way ... if YOU held [hv=d=s&v=b&s=sk84hak73dqj3ck75]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] and you opened 1nt with it, and your partner (not your anti-Stayman partner but another one) bid 2♣ -- and you had the partnership agreement that you will not use Stayman with responder having a 4333 or 3433 hand -- then, would you bid 2♥? Would anyone bid 2♦ and conceal the ♥s, because of the 3433 shape? I am wondering if the 1nt re-bidders would do that, even if they knew that responder could not have a "flat" 4333 or 3433 hand... Arrrrrghhhhh, what a question!!!! Remember the most important thing about bridge is partnership trust. I may exhibit errors of judgement, from time to time, but I do not consciously try to deceive my partner - opponents maybe, partner no (if I can help it). If partner asks me to tell her whether I have a 4-card major I do so..... Once I bid NT my Partner is boss. S/he asks, I tell ...... S/he knows my hand(-ish) I do not know hers. Whatever contract we land in s/he chooses.

You are opening a can of worms here. I subscribe to searching for the 4-card major fit after an NT opening. One of my partners doesn't (ergo the can). As I said before, one person may be balanced, the other not - could prove fatal in NT. In this case, one pair opened 1NT on the above hand. They got a top. Responder bid 2♣ (Planning to pass any response). and they found the ♥ fit. Is the consensus: "Play in NT at any price" or "Find a major fit."? :angry: rla

I am in agreement with you, my bid was bad. However, it still does not answer my question. Forget my 3HCP and give me another King of something. My problem remains the same: Does responder bid a 5/6-card ♦ suit before a 4-card major, or the major first? If yes, Why would opener bid NT over showing a 4-card major suit? :rolleyes:rla

Been reading the responses, many thanks to you all. Ok, here is my problem. Basically, I was responder and I should not have bid 1♦ at all!!! (confession time) I was holding ♠ X X X ♥ X X X X ♦ K X X X X ♣X I was justifying my lack of discipline, thinking that if partner bids a major I pass. (Hey, I have seen worse psyche bids!!!!) Partner bid 1NT. Now, leaving my naughtiness aside, all I am asking is what is the reasoning behind hiding a 4-card major? Is not the aim of bidding, to find a major fit? What is the point of saying: "Well I was balanced so I bid NT"? Don't you have a partner who may not be "balanced"? I agree with responding in the major if you are 4♠/♥s and 4♦s, but when I have 5♦s, I think I should bid them. If both my partner and myself are bidding up the line, we will certainly discover our major fit, if we have one. :angry: rla

After opening 1♣ and Partner's 1♦ response; what is my bid now? Holding: ♠ Q 6 4 ♥ A K 6 2 ♦ Q J 6 ♣ J 6 4 Does 1♦ deny a 4-card major in "standard" SAYC? B) rla

I find the comments that don't get to the table just as obnoxious. Both from those slamming the people playing the hands and those puffing their chests about how well "they" made or set that contract. Personally, I would welcome table talk, but I can see why it is banned . We ourselves are to blame - a pity Orla

The logic: "to bid Spades would show distribution that I don't have!" Baffles me. If P opens 1NT, with a 4-card major, hearts and/or spades you bid Stayman immediately to find the major fit. Bidding in Acol allows 4-card major opening bids. Draco has a 4 3 3 3 hand but too strong for a weak NT opening. Draco "hides" the fact that he has a 4-card major and bids the "prepared" club. On the re-bid he again "denies" the 4-card major by bidding NT. Why? Orla

I am a wimp when it comes to penalty doubles >:(. But I know, doubling, or not doubling, is sometimes a matter of a top or a bottom. Lately I have been hearing: "you should have doubled", way too often. :-[ How can you be sure Opps really can't make that contract and it is just a sacrifice? :P I have noticed, too, that very often doubling in IMPs make little difference to the score ;D - not so in MPs ;) Any chance of some basic guidelines as to when it is a good time to penalize Opps. My biggest problem is when my hand is weakish and I should be doubling on what P has said to me. ::) ::) Thanks, Orla ::)

Playing weak NT ....... holding: AQ93 .. AQ9 .. Q742 .. J5 Which suit do you bid first, diamonds or spades? Why? holding: AQ93 .. AQ9 .. Q72 .. J45 Do you bid spades first or a "prepared" club? Why? holding: AK93 .. AQ97 .. Q2 .. 845 Which major do you bid first? Always up the line? Or with AK93 .. Q452 .. Q8 .. A97 The more "biddable" spades? What are the hard and fast rules? ::( :) ;D Orla

What is the rule regarding "biddable" suits, in Acol? P opens 1D, Playing MPs should I bid 1S or 1NT, holding: T874 .. K74 .. KJT .. Q62 What is the consensus: Is it better to be in NT or in spades, with a "fit" of 8 rotten spades between us? If P has 4 spades chances are s/he has a couple of high ones anyway, if mine are rotten. Does a trump fit depend on the length or the strength of the suit? Orla

There are a great many conventions that you can use in response to Opps opening the bidding in No Trumps. Up to now, I have used, Astro, DONT and Cappelletti and I am having problems choosing the best one ;D Is there anyone out here who could go through some of the conventions. Explain them for those that don't know them. And maybe give your opinion as to why one is better than then other. Also, is there a difference when you are defending weak or strong No-Trump bids? I am asking this on the beginner string because I am hoping that those, in the know, don't bog us down with exotic conventions :o :( :D :) Just the absolute basics. Thanks a mil. Looking forward to the replies ... Orla

I have a problem-ette. There was a discussion at our table tonight about the criteria for opening(or rather, NOT opening) a weak2. I wanted to post a question ;D. Now, I know there is a string on pre-empts somewhere on these boards. I will look in a while. But I realise looking for strings is like looking for a needle in a haystack ::). (Well ok, I exaggerate - A TAD :-X) But what I wanted to suggest is: Any chance of having an index of strings to make our search easier? Will also help us (not) to create one if (not) needed. While I am at it, megga kudos :-* to you all who are busy on these boards 8) 8) 8). They are really great. It is amazing to see the number of members clock up daily. ( :-/we need an "applause" icon ;D) Orla :o