Orla

I was holding this hand when my partner opened 2NT (20 - 21HCP) ♠K 7 ♥K J 5 ♦T 6 ♣K J T 7 6 3 I considered the possibility of a slam in clubs. We have a maximum of 32 HCP. It makes for sure if I am declarer. P is holding: ♠A J 3 ♥4 2 ♦A K Q J 9 ♣A Q 4 We do play 4-way transfer. So, is there any way of bidding to get to slam - if so, how? Or shall we just chalk it up to one that got away?

This has come up in discussion a few times and I must say I have problems understanding the logic. So, can somebody explain it to me. I have 15 points and a 5-card major. My partner responds 2♣/♦. Up to now, I had been responding 3NT, because I had learned that you have game in 3NT with 25pts. Now, I have learned that 3NT promises more than 15pts. I was under the assumption that responder could pass 2NT ... Ok my question is: What is 1M - 2m - 2NT .... and may partner pass? What is 1M - 2m - 3NT .... ?

I will show the whole deal in a while. However let me ask this question: If this hand is not strong enough to open 2♣, why are we taught the idea of counting losers. From what I have learned, the hand only has three losers. (Of course, it would be nicer if the ♥Ace was a ♣Ace)

Holding this hand, as dealer and playing 5-card majors, what would you open? [hv=d=s&v=n&s=sakq762ha3d10ckq92]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Please give your reasons.

This hand came up during a just-for-fun teams afternoon of live bridge. Scoring was IMPs: ♠ J ♥ A K X X X X X ♦ X ♣ K X X X What would you open in 1st or 2nd seat? If you open 1♥ what is your rebid after 1♠ and why?

Sorry, I always forget that. We were all white and playing IMPs.

Could you explain why? Also could you say what you would bid and why?

A difference of opinion, so I was told to take it here. :) Bidding goes: Pass - Pass - 1♠ - ? In fourth seat do you double for take out or bid your clubs holding: ♠ 8 6 ♥ K 8 5 ♦ K Q T ♣ K J 9 8 7

The way I see it is: Partner did not react to 1NT. He knows I have at least 1 spade, giving us 6+spades. What is the problem with showing that he has 5 spades at level 2, rather than risking a 4 2 "fit" at level 3? I know from the bidding that he is not strong. So, we have quantity rather than quality. The fact that responder has bid NT probably means that s/he has the minors.... I still do not get the double. :rolleyes:

Sorry, we were all non-vulnerable. New partner, playing SAYC, IMPs.

First hand at the table. Dealer opens 1♥ - P - 1NT - P - 2♥ - P - P - double The re-opening/balancing double was made with this hand: ♠ X X X X X ♥ X ♦ X X ♣ A K X X X That was the first and last board, because declarer told my partner that he was an idiot. :lol: After leaving the table, I had a short discussion with my partner and said that, for me, a take-out double denies a 5-card suit. He disagrees. When I said: "I do not double with a 5-card suit" he replied: "Like all hard and fast rules, it's a bad one, but you must do as you see fit" (There is no arguing with an "expert" :blink: ) My question is: Having doubled for take out with a 5 1 2 5 hand, what does partner do when I bid 3♦? What do you think?

The other evening, playing in our club. we had this hand: Partner/Dealer ♠AQT98X ♥A763 ♦- ♣AK7 Bidding goes 1♠ -- 2♦ -- 2♥ My question is: When I bid 2♦, do I promise partner not to pass his next bid? When he bids 2♥ and I cannot support either major, must I bid 2NT? As it was, I had this hand. ♠XX ♥Q9XX ♦AQT9X ♣QX I was absolutely minimum for my 2♦ bid. I didn't pass 2♥, but was almost tempted because I thought 2♥ was weakish and I didn't see game. Basically, two questions arose from this hand: Should my partner have shown his strength by bidding 3♥ after I showed my 10+pts? Is 2♥ (a new suit) from partner always forcing? We need to hear comments

This hand came up in our bridge club on Friday. Later a few of us sat down together and discussed the bidding. Holding ♠ K D 2 ♥ K T 5 3 2 ♦ A J 7 4 ♣ T Partner ♠ A J T 8 7 ♥ A D 9 6 4 ♦ Void ♣ K 9 4 I opened 1♥ My partner bid 4♦. I bid 4♥ (thinking my values in ♦ were worthless). Someone suggested I bid 4♠ after 4♦ Later, we came to the conclusion that maybe Jacoby would be the better bid - leaving us more room to investigate the hand. What do you think responder should bid after 1♥? Edit: Sorry the D = Q. Arrggghh I wrote the hand down in my club and had a brain oops when I posted.

(Yes, thank you, Rob, my description of the bidding was sloppy) I know that partner has more clubs than diamonds, otherwise he would have bid diamonds first. I know that RHO is doubling for ♦, ♥ or ♠ (apart from clubs). So, have I got it correct, because partner is strong and balanced - with his second double - he is telling me to bid ♥ or ♦ at level 3, although they are, more or less, the suits that our (strong 11+pts) opponent has? Why?

Partner opens 1♣ RHO doubles I pass and her partner bids 1♠ Partner doubles. RHO bids 2♠ I pass LHO passes Partner doubles again. Now, is this double for take out or penalties? After the first double, had RHO passed I would have taken it out and bid 2♣. After the 2♠ I was off the hook. I was weak holding: ♠ 852 ♥ 942 ♦ QT53 ♣ Z75 What was going through my mind was: I know partner is strong. I know LHO has 0 - 7pts, otherwise he would jump bid. The original doubler should be short in clubs. Why does partner not rebid them? I do know that partner does not have spades - because I have 3 If I bid a suit, other than clubs, it would be a suit that RHO wanted. Anyway, what would you have done?

You have 9HCP and that doubleton. I bid 2♥. If P invites, I go the 4. I would not bid 1♠. I think bidding 3♥ you should have 5 hearts. (I bid 3♥ if I am playing 5-card majors promising 9 hearts between us)

Ok, Ron. What I would like to know, though, is: - What am I promising when I bid 3♠ - in shape and strength? - What am I promising when I double? Could you, or anyone, explain why one should bid the major over the minor? (Btw, I learned 5-card majors first, but I think you are right: The "up the line" came more with the Acol.) :lol: rla

Interesting replies, many thanks I will try to take them on board. However, whatever happened to the "bidding up the line", that I have read in so many books? I have found that, if I am weak, I will bid a 4-card major rather than 1♦. However, if I am strong(-ish) I will bid up the line. . I kind of think, if we find ourselves in NT, maybe we will get a lead in the unbid suit. Ron says:"For me, your bidding shows 5+D and 4S in a gf hand". If, for example, (in general) you bid 1♠ first and partner is holding a minimum 2 2 4 5 hand, how would you find the diamond fit? Would you now just have to hand it over to the opponents? If I now bid 2♦ for me, that, would be showing 5 spades and 4 diamonds. It irks me when people say: "bidding ♦s denies a major" (I don't play Walsh!!!). Instead, for me, your bidding NT AFTER my 1♦ is "DENYING THE MAJOR" :lol: . One of the very very very first things I learned, from my mentor at Yahoo, was: "Bid your hand". This has stuck with me. And skipping ♦s to bid a major either denies ♦s or shows 5 4. Am I wrong?

I was corrected on my bid tonight and I was wondering what would be understood by it. I was holding: ♠K Q 4 2 ♥A ♦T 6 5 3 ♣Q 8 5 2 Partner (dealer) opens 1♣ I bid 1♦ and LHO bids 2♥. Partner passes and RHO bids 3♥. I then bid 3 ♠. I was subsequently told that I should double 3♥, that bidding spades shows a stronger hand. I know we have a fit in at least one suit as I am 4 4 4 1. So, how much stronger do I need to be to bid 3♠?

Playing tourney tonight with a pick up "expert" the following hand came up. I was holding: ♠ Q 8 4 3 ♥ A 5 3 ♦ A K Q J 5 4 ♣ Void I open 1♦ in second seat - P bids 2♣ - I bid 2♠ P then bids 3♥ - doubled by RHO. I bid 3NT. Obviously this was not asking for stoppers, since P took me out of 3NT and bid 4♣. I bid 4♦ 'cause I really do not like ♣. 4NT by P (RKBW, I am (correctly) assuming) I bid 5♣ (3 keycards) This is doubled by LHO, and passed by partner. What do I bid? I stupidly trusted my partner's ****"decision" - thinking he had a handful of clubs I passed. And had to suffer his ranting and nasty comment for rest of tourney. P was holding. ♠ A J 6 ♥ Q 9 8 ♦ 6 4 ♣ A Q J 6 4 It was an absolute bottom. "Normal bid" is 3NT +++. Can anyone shed light into my partner's bidding? He was not forthcoming. Can anyone "explain" to me how I am to understand what P is trying to say? And can anyone explain to me when it is ok not to trust P and to ride roughshod over his ****"decisions"? Somehow I do not feel I should be scapegoat ..... :angry: rla **** taking me out of NT and then bidding Blackwood, made him boss, I think.

Some of my (live) partners want to play this. I hate it. I have been told that it is not a good idea to open a weak 2 in first/second seat unless ... (your weak2 suit is good?) .. sorry have forgotten when you sh/could open, because you are "preempting your partner". Why then, if I open 1♣/♦, would my partner want to respond 2♥? S/he does not have a clue about my hand. Whatever happened to responding 1♥ then 2♥? What do I respond? The other day in our bridge club I was holding: ♠QJTX - ♥X - ♦AKQXXX - ♣?? I open 1♦ and my partner bids 2♥ - what now? Anyone out there want to try to win me over to this stupid bid? :unsure: rla

Ahhh NMF, teehee, forgot about that. Thanks

The other day, playing in our bridge club, there was a bid: I opened 1♣, P bids 1♥, I bid 1NT, she bids 2♦, so I bid 2♥. It turned out that my partner had only two ♦♦. After the hand, I was asked whether my partner's 3rd- suit bid was always forcing. I said that in my book, as responder, any new suit by my partner was forcing. I thought this was a rule. However, I was now being accused of not alerting the bid. In Fact, so grave was this misdemeanour, the director was called :ph34r: Today, however, in my bridge club I asked someone, who is in the know, and was informed categorically, that 3rd-suit forcing is alertable. B) Is this worldwide or is it just Germany? In all the books I learned bridge from, I was told "you may not pass a new suit by responder." If this is so, why would I alert it? Is there a catalogue of “normal” bids that have to be alerted so that next time I avoid having the director being called to my table? arrrggghhhhhhhhhh :( rla

I will make the question more simple. Generally: What do you do after opponents have doubled (for take-out) your partner's opening bid? What are the guidelines? With few points, with many points, with a long suit of your own but few points, etc etc? After opps double Partner's opening bid: Redouble is one bid. But what does it mean? Does it mean: a.) I have points but no suit? b.) I have a suit and points, but want to show points before suit? c.) anything else? After opps double Partner's opening bid: Bidding a suit is one bid. What does it mean? Does this promise: a.) 4/5 of the suit? b.) few points? :) rla

We are in the throes of discussion of what to respond when opps double our opening bid of 1m. I posted this hand a while back that my partner redoubled opps' double ♠ 10 9 7 6 3 ♥ K 5 ♦ Q 7 ♣ A Q 8 2 I say P should have bid his spades, and some agree and some don't. So, what is right and what is wrong? What does P bid if holding: A.) the same shape with fewer points and a 5-card suit: ♠ 10 9 7 6 3 ♥ K 5 ♦ 8 7 ♣ A 9 8 2 B.) Same points (10+), no 5-card suit. ♠ K 7 6 3 ♥ 10 9 5 ♦ Q 7 ♣ A Q 8 2 C.) Fewer points, no 5-card suit. ♠ 10 7 6 3 ♥ 10 9 5 ♦ Q 7 ♣ A 10 8 2 We are still searching for something we can agree on. The thing is, we have to decide on something consistent and this is where our problem lies. Are there any hard and fast rules of when to pass and when to bid? Hope I have not made the question too complicated :) rla