dokoko

IMO a weak-only transfer is a great waste of bidding space (no rebid except pass has a defined meaning). So with a strong minor one-suiter, transfer to your suit and then bid on (new suit = shortness, 3NT = nonforcing slam try, rebid your suit = balanced slam try).

All the blame to East who has a clear 2NT bid at his 3rd turn (shows 16-17 HCP in a natural system); with more rebid 3NT, with less 1NT. West was right to pass 1NT. It's surprising how often players are lost when the book bids end. As others said, it's probably best to open 1NT to avoid a difficult rebid over a 1!s response.

All the blame to East who has a clear 2NT bid at his 3rd turn (shows 16-17 HCP); with more rebid 3NT, with less 1NT. West was right to pass 1NT.

On the bidding you can safely assume ♠A in South. On a spade lead, to make 5♣ you have to find ♣K. After the actual diamond lead, declarer is home except: a) ♣ void with North. To win he has to finesse in trumps, play hearts for 5 tricks or hope for a defensive error. b) ♣K singleton with North. To win he has to cash ♣A. If he loses the trump finesse to North the spade switch should be obvious. c) ♣Kx with North. To win he has to cash ♣A and hope for at least three hearts with North. d) ♣Kxx with North. He has to find North with at least three hearts after either cashing ♣A or leading a low club from dummy and playing the ace when South shows out. Unless you can rule out a ♣K with North (assuming South wouldn't have bid like he did without it), cashing the ace is the right play. I have no idea why South tried to help declarer or why declarer didn't want to make his contract. But in such company results are pretty much random.

Those who bid 4♥ opposite a partner who hasn't promised any extras why not start with a 2/1? ♠. Good luck opposite ♠KQxxx ♥QJxx ♦Ax ♣xx!

I'm a little confused. If you take 10 tricks out of 14 (so lose 4) who wins? What are the rules for 14-trick games?

You might be interested in this: http://bridge.mgoetze.net/21twalsh.pdf

Assuming the entries are there, I see three reasonable lines: A. Cash the ace. If West shows out, finesse twice against East. If West plays an honor, cash an honor and finesse against East if West shows out on the second round. Otherwise play for the drop. B. Cash an honor from hand. If East plays an honor, finesse against West. If West plays an honor, cross to the ace and finesse against East if necessary. Otherwise play for the drop. C. Cash an honor from hand. If West plays an honor, cross to the ace and finesse against East if necessary. Otherwise play for the drop. Line C is obviously inferior to line A (assuming your entries are safe). If you are sure East would not play an honor from J10x: - line A is better than B when East holds J10 or J10xxx: 3.39%+1.96%=5.35% - line B is better than A when East holds J or 10: 2x 2.82%=5.64% The odds of East holding J10x is 10.17%. If he will play an honor from that holding 3 times in hundred, line A is better. You can improve on line B if East known to always play a certain card from J10: If he plays the card he would play from J10, play for the drop, otherwise take the "marked" finesse. But you better be sure: if East would play "the wrong honor" one time in ten against you, you should finesse.

I like to play 2/1 structures. That said I don't think it's an effective method with most casual partners. You pay a price by making it more difficult to bid invitational hands. If your follow-up after a 2/1 response is only so-so, you don't get enough compensation on the game and slam hands.

I guess mikeh and his partner are good enough to be able to handle that (btw I claim that for me, too). If you think you can't you'd better open conservatively. Bridge isn't played in a perfect world. It's all about doing things that work out well more often than not.

You're right - didn't think it throügh.

I play on nige's line but will try to ruff a diamond good even if no quack appears, so: ruff 3rd diamond. If ♦10 is good, claim. If someone showed out, try to discard dummy's heart on the spades. Otherwise cross to♠J, ruff 4th diamond, cross to ♠Q and claim if noone overruffed the diamond or ruffed the spade.

After playing 9♣ to the first trick, wouldn't it count as revoke if you later discard it? ;)

In a precision context - where it was invented - the support double is an otherwise idle bid. In a context of fairly unlimited openings there is a second hand type which would like to double: a balanced hand too strong to open 1NT. Some authors recommend to double with both handtypes (I like the idea!) but don't give any advice on the follow-up structure. I am curious whether there is some material available covering this matter. I.e. how to bid after 1m-1M(2om)dbl or 1m-1♠(2♥)dbl when opener will double with either handtype? Any advice appreciated!

Very normal double. Values for game, no fit, no ♥ stop.

Very good point!

I prefer taking 50 instead of conceding 590. If after my double West plays me for all the trumps, my double will have lost 640 pts if partner leaves it in, 850 if he takes it out to 4♠.

Playing your normal 1NT structure when taking out partner's double isn't a good idea IMO. When partner opens 1NT most of your bids are looking for greater things (game or even slam). Sometimes you take 1NT out to a better partial. When partner doubles 1NT things are different. With most good hands there is no need to act - you will win enough by beating 1NT; if you have a shapely hand you can jump in your suit or bid 2NT to show a strong 5+5+ hand. With weak hands, however, you often have need to bid. Defending 1NT dbld usually isn't a great score when opps hold 23 pts. So your 2-level bids should be natural and weak. In borderline cases you might just pass hoping partner has more than minimum. You might even get help from the opponents. If responder is obviously unhappy with the double, you should believe him and pass. If he is happy with the double, run. If your opponents play artificial takeouts of 1NT doubled you may take advantage of that. If pass forces opener to redouble you may bid a 5-card suit immediately; lacking that you pass and if 1NT redoubled comes back you bid the lower of two 4-card suits. Whatever method you choose, none will work on 100% of the hands. BTW I would not double a weak NT on 13 pts, I would double on 15+ and some 14 counts. On weaker hands, either I have a (natural or conventional) overcall or I pass. Partner is expected to protect with a double with 11 or more pts.

I pass 2♣ - and next time bid diamonds if I get the chance. 2♣-4 beats 3♠X-2

I don't think there is enough need for artificial forcing bids to completely rule out a contract in the fourth suit. So a jump in the 4th suit is natural if lower than responder's first suit. How strong should this be? Playing 4th suit FG we can at least hope to rebid the 4th suit naturally (showing a 55 game force) - in fact to jump in response to FSF opener should have very good reason. As others pointed out there is no case for jumping with a weak hand; just choose from partner's suits or rebid your first suit. So the logical thing is to play the 4th suit jump as a natural invite.

I would not hold the hand in this context. I do not open it 1NT (would you?) nor respond 2♦.

In non-competitive auctions this structure should work ok. You have to find out whether you can handle the problems that arise in competitive auctions where you can no more rule out a certain balanced range in opener's hand. And it might be easier to defend contracts played by your 1NT opener when he is known to hold 4 cards in one of the majors.

Playing a Short Club with Transfer Walsh (light openings – so most balanced 11 counts and most unbalanced 10 counts are opened) I came across the sequence: 1♣-1♠;2♦ 1♣ shows 2+ in any balanced hand (and is exactly 2 in about 25% of the balanced hands included) or 4+ in an unbalanced hand. 1♠ transfers to 1NT and usually denies a four card major (may have one when strong, but responder will introduce it himself in that case). 2♦ is a natural reverse (showing 17+ with an unbalanced hand, i. e. 5+ clubs & 4+ diamonds). Other rebids by opener include: 1NT is a balanced hand below a 1NT opener (which is 14-16 in our structure) 2♣ is an unbalanced hand not strong enough to jump to 3♣ or reverse 2M is a natural reverse (showing 17+ with an unbalanced hand, i. e. 5+ clubs & 4+ in the major) I think 2♦ could better be used to show a limited unbal hand with at least 44 in the minors (as responder has virtually denied a major, a minor fit is certain); this avoids some silly 2♣ contracts with a good diamond fit (e.g. KQx/x/KQxx/Qxxxx opp. xxx/Kxx/Axxxx/Kx) . But what do I bid with real reverse hands then? Any ideas out there for this situation?

As helene_t pointed out 2NT here is best played as natural. I think the best way to play the cuebid is to show any strong two-suiter (not just hearts+minor), the kind of hand which is difficult to describe starting with dbl and fears to be dropped after a simple overcall. This would show 5+5+, however, so no option here.

What about West starting with ♠853 and ruffing the club return when the trump finesse loses?