HeartA

Though it is most likely I will be on lead, it is also possible partner's lead. And most of the time a 2C opener has un-flat hand, so maybe partner. 2H overcall sets a start to sacrifice/compete with opps. If partner does like H, it is ok too. I will overcall 2H.

No.

Is this forum about bridge or language? "play" can be a transitive verb or intransitive verb. "I refuse to play" is a perfect English sentence. By the way, when I say "I refuse to play", I can mean I refuse to play it (the system), or refuse to play with him/her. Take it wasy, Ron.

#1, inverted minor becomes useless, and D fit becomes very difficult to find. #2, 1D opening does not use much space, opps can easily enter the auction. It may let opp to enter the auction earlier. If you don't open, your lho may not strong enough to open either. The advantage of opening 1D with 2Ds only is that it also make it difficult for opps to find D fit.

As you said, the number of D in the 1D opening is directly proportional to the range of your 1N opening, which is very true. How many Ds for 1N opening reveals a lot of things about the whole system. So "how many Ds 1D opening implies is NOT an isolation issue. I refuse to play a system that 1D opening says almost nothing about D.

Why is it foolish? I value features more than HCP. My 1NT is 13-15. With Axx Kx Kx Qxxxx, I open 1NT. What is the problem? For 11-12 HCP without 4-card ♦, I pass. At 3rd/4th position, and 12 HCP, I bid 1NT or pass depending on the quality of cards.

If a pick-up partner says (s)he plays precision, the first thing I ask is the minimum number of cards 1D opening guarantees. If the answer is 2, I refuse to play. My 1D garantees 4+ cards.

Don't get too serious with self claimed "experts". I marked myself as "expert" in the beginning, but changed to "world class" after encountered too many "experts" of novice level.

2♣.

I agree with you, ane welcome Ben Ben, While most of the time you are right, this time I have to disagree. As I said in the previous post, after Stayman or something else to show interest in suit contract, 4NT as quantitive doesn't make sense anymore. I insist that only direct 4C over 1NT/2NT is Gerber. 4C as Splinter or another suit need discussion between partners, but I think the former is much more accepted and thus as default. After some bidding and then 4C is default as splinter, 4NT is RKC (or plain blackwood)

To start with J from hand, handles North with Q/K stiff, Kx or Qx, Kxx or Qxx, or KQ(x)(x) (without 9) To start small from dummy can handle South with stiff HK/Q/9, Kx, Qx, 9x or K9, Q9, KQ (assume declarer guesses correctly). To cash HA first, you can only handle K/Q stiff or KQ doubleton from either side. Line #1 is the best.

I don't agree that 4NT after Stayman is quantitive, especially with the sequence I gave. 2C implies (at least one) major, not very flat hand, otherwise should 4NT directly. After Stayman and my 2H, 4NT as quantitive doesn't make sense, since I haven't denied 4-card spades yet. I prefer "only direct 4C is Gerber". The gadgets "3S anonymous splinter" needs to discuss, not good for pick-up partners. Anyway, the full hand was in my first post with hidden text. I like Eric's solution: bid 6H directly regardless what 4C is about.

very true. B) Anyway, I bid 4S (cue-bid), also suggesting I was willing to play over 4H. Guess not a good bid. But I was afraid of D controls.

I as South, holding ♠AQ4,♥AJ74,♦T87,♣AJ5, opened 1NT. my pd responded 2C (Stayman), I bid 2H. My partner then bid 4C. What does 4C mean?

After my partner rebid 2H, because "concenbtration of honors and showing key features" is the key, I should rebid 3♣, holding ♠K9xx, ♥Kx, ♦x, ♣AKQxxx. Where are we going then? BTW, what is RKC for?

Agree with Eric.

When we know that the combined hands have a game, it is VERY important to find a fit first. Either side with more than minimum then can show interest in slam. Even without ♦K or ♥Q, I would still rebid 2S.

After 2/1 (even SAYC), I don't play reverse anymore. What is the purpose of reversing? It forces partner to bid again (hand is strong, of course). Here partner will not pass (after 2/1), it's a good idea to bid whatever (suit, distribution etc) you have.

Agree with mrdct.

4♦ could mean nothing. Since 2♦ is reverse, 3♦ is (mini or not ) splinter.

Agree with Ben. I would bid 4♥ anyway. BTW, North is chicken when he bid 3♥ only. ♦A was certainly a good card.

Although what you wrote could happen, it doesn't mean 1D-(3C)-P-(P)-3H USUALLY promises 5D-4H. I don't like it when people use an extreme exception as counter-example, as the hand ♠Ax,♥5432,♦AJTx,♣Axx from another thread. There are (almost) ALWAYS exceptions for every bidding. When we say 1M promises 5-card, 1♦ promises 4-card, there are exceptions as well. With ♠AKQJ, ♥5432, ♦543, ♣A4, do you open 1C, 1D, or 1H or 1S? WIth ♠QT65,♥K943,♦AKQ,♣85, what do you open?

I go with Free as well.

Since bidding a side-suit at 3 level is a suit-helper bid, 3C is very bad. Partner will mis-estimate his hand (appreciate CQ or CK or even CA, devaluate DQ, DA or HK). This kind of psychic is not good in this occasion. I would bid 3H without HQ.

4♠, period. Don't want to reveal info to opps, and willing to take risk of going down.