Double !

the way I understand it, partner had a chance to ask more emphatically for a spade lead when lho bid 3S. IMO, failure to dbl 3S kind of implies that P spade suit isn't good enough to strongly recommend a spade lead. So maybe something else is better?

question: If, instead of bidding 4♥, if I bid 5♣, does that imply heart void, or deny heart void, seeing that I've taken the bidding past 4NT making it sort of difficult for partner to ask for key cards at this point?

2♠

partner had an opportunity to tell me to lead spades. partner did not take the opportunity to tell me to lead spades. so......I think I'll lead something else. Leading from J-4th never seems to work out for me, so i'll try a heart. (Haht if you're from Boston area).

I am familiar with but haven't actually played transfer responses, but I have a suggestion: Lose the 1NT = 8-11. It tends to wrong-side contracts. I use a 1-H resp as 2-way, hearts or balanced 8-10. Even Meckwell doesn't use 1NT to show balanced hand: they use 2Diamond response = 8-10. My sense is that, should partner accept the transfer, then it might be good to use it as TAB: remember, alpha before beta, before gamma, before delta etc. Then again, you lose the advantage of the transfer should partner's response be the suit P actually holds. Anyway, just a thought.

agree apparently some feel that this is not a good rule

IMO, Mr Star player got what he/she asked for Gee, if P had responded 2C, he/she could rebid 2 & then 3Hts How about that?

Good Numbers to ye! DHL

Touch, hit, smack or pop = double. Rewind, send it back, cap it = redouble. I'm sure there are others. :lol: Crack = double Beaver (from backgammon) = redbl

agree 100% but I have seen some (and made some) very strange bids in the interest of using a toy convention.

1) not following any rules, per se, with no foresight. 2) regarding whether or not rebidding 3H over 2S shows 4 or 5: is opener rebidding 2H with 6-4, with some 6-4, or not at all? That influences how I respond with this hand. 3) I have a lot of controls, not just hcp. I am probably willing to rebid hearts twice and then subside if partner has absolutely no fit. ...........and, who is to say that opener is necessarily rebidding 2S? 4) I don't wish to get into debate about whether or not 2NT by opener shows extra values: my style is that it doesn't. But, I can easily rebid 3H/2NT to show 5-6. If you want to respond 2H initially because to respond 2 clubs creates problems when opener is 5332 with a minimum and rebids 2S as a default rebid, well, then this is an issue of rebid philosophy, not judgment/ planning.

Disagree Han has immediately repented and recanted. Agree with one thing: you are dead as soon as you start going against your own belief system, even if no one else agrees with you. To thine own self.......? As Stockard Channing sang in the movie "Grease": "there are a lot worse things that I could do".

no, couldn't have been by phone. When? Haven't the foggiest... BTW: If by phone, well, they missed 7!

My Lead? partner's bidding is predicated on the hypothesis that I hold the template hand for a double of 2 spades: sound opening hand and 1-4-4-4 distribution. With a poor hand, partner would be expected to bid something (2NT Leb included), so the pass has to show a willingness to defend, i.e. decent with spades. Otherwise partner's pass to say "no clear action" is, IMO an example of partner-hanging. The doubler has already said "choose a suit, P" with the dbl of 2S. To pass with the intent of saying "no clear action, P" is tantamount to saying, "No, I don't wanna, you choose!" With a 1-4-4-4, the doubler is now dead. If the partnership agreement is to pass with no clear action, then I guess I remove to 2NT? Will P take this as a scramble as opposed to a strong 19-20? I do not know. Just another of 1001 bidding situations that need to be discussed.

without some other agreement, a simple 1♠ bid seems in order. I have a sound opener, 5 1/2 losers, good intermediates, controls, and the master suit. To bound into 4 spades (so the opps can't find a hypothetical save) is taking an unnecessary view on the hand, and I don't have flytoox's agreement with P. I have a 1♠ bid. Why can't I bid what I have?

agree what else? Bid 2H first? I don't think so. why can't I just bid my hands normally?

partner said "lead a heart!". Opp said, "OK, I'm ready for that". partner said, "Oh, yeah? Well. lead a heart, partner, and we'll see, dammit!" and opps has said, "hmm, lemme see if I can talk you out of it." Sorry, I trust my partner, especially when partner kicks me in the shins twice on the same auction. Will now need cutches for a week. Partner heard the 6 spade bid. If I don't lead heart I might also need a coroner after P kills me. Unless there is some new modern meaning to these doubles, partner can't recommend one lead with the first double and then suddenly change his/her mind and tell you to lead something else with the second double.

definitely recommend Reese-Jourdain: "Squeeze Play Made Easy" darned good book maybe not as good, though, as Ben's soon-to-be-released material? :lol:

unfortunately its MP Thanks, I needed that. still bid 4S although not with as much conviction: too many hands that P can have that passes 4H but provides a trick or two. and, I suspect that I shall have some company in 4S.

This is an excellent question and topic. I am curious about how many people play unusual/unusual (probably most) but, also, how they play it. The version I learned was that the cheaper of the cuebids showed limit+ raise in P's suit, the higher cuebid showed the unbid suit with tolerance for opener's suit, and 3 of other major showed the other major GF. Then I recently read as article in acbl bulletin suggesting that the meanings of the cuebids be reversed so that the cheaper cue is GI (or better) in the other major, and that opener could use the step between his/her suit and responder's bid as a denial response (don't like that other major, P). So, I am curious about how others play U/U. re: question hand: this raises (to me) an interesting question. Is 3H just a general stopper-showing Forcing bid? or is it like in a maximal overcall double situation, an invitational raise to 4S with 4-card support? The same question could be asked about a 3D rebid.

A question. I could easily look this up since I have the material bookmarked and printed out, but.. In your opinion, with the exception that XYZ also applies to sequences when opener has not rebid 1 (or 2)NT, in what ways does XYZ differ from 2-way or double-barrelled checkback (stayman)? ie: 2C--> 2D, and 2D =GF? Thanks in advance

Thank you very much for sharing this, Henri: This was very generous on your part, and very appreciated. DHL

Just curious: did the 5♥ bidder intend this as exclusion BW?

What he (she?) said. sounds good to me, front of card with the above-noted exceptions. Important to get your suit and hand quality in before opps identify their suit: makes it riskier for the dblr to then bid his/her suit.

Minus 500 + 420 = 80, you risk 2 imps by bidding if your premise about going -420 is correct, you lose 1040 if both 4H and 4S make. You lose a truckload if you're -500 and could have been +100 or 300, but P needs some tricks for that to happen.