PriorKnowledge

Another reason to bid 1H. Suppose the bidding goes (1D) p (2N) p (3N) all pass and partner leads a spade instead of a heart from KJx. Wouldn't you want to kick yourself for passing?

2S is OK. Make it more difficult for opps to find their possible heart game. 3S is insane. A balanced hand with xx support when you have a chance to drop the opps in 3 of a minor?

4H is OK, but I like pass better. Pass is forcing. After opening 2C, your side is commited to game or dbl of opps. 4S bypasses 4H, so pass is better. My question is: What does responder's original pass show? If you don't have an agreement, you should. Some play that dbl is weak and pass shows more. Others play it the other way around.

1) yes 2) automatic overcall at 1-level on any 5 card suit and any 8+hcp

Missing the point. If you are short in opps suit, you MUST reopen. Usually with a dbl, but you must reopen. Matter of partnership trust. That is the convention of negative dbls. Do you pass out 4N blackwood because you can't see the slam and opened with a sub-minimum? How about passing opener's reverse or jump-shift? Do you refuse a transfer (unless playing puppet where that is allowed)? How about passing a takeout dbl because you are too weak? There are some situations that you use your best judgement. Others, you quickly look at your hand and make the indicated bid. If you don't like playing a partnership game like bridge, take up chess.

I can't vote because I bid 3D at my first call

Playing Precision does not preclude you from also playing 2/1. Meckwell does.

1N... Balanced 12-14. What is the problem? Rebidding 2C may work on this hand, because responder bids 3N AND responder has a spade tenace AND the spades are offside AND they don't block AND they can cash enough winners to set you AND the opening leader does not lead clubs AND they lead spades AND playing the AS on the opening lead does not help AND (any more?)

Isn't this BIL? The "standard" J2N responses are (in order of priority): 4 of new suit = 2nd good 5 card suit (good = 2 of top 3 honors) 3 of new suit = singleton or void 3N = good hand (about 15-17 hcp) 3 of major = strong hand (about 17+ hcp) 4 of major = none of the above Obviously, if u are 5-5, u have a shortness, but showing a 2nd good 5-card suit is higher priority. Before everyone jumps on me with improvements, if you are sitting down and said nothing more than "Jacoby 2N", this is the rebid structure you should expect.

N: Axx AKx Qxx QJxx S: x QJxx AKx AKxxx This is a possible auction, if 2C followed by 3m is forcing. Some play this sequence as weak. 1N 2C 2D 3C 3H 4C 4N 5C 5H 5S 6D 7N 2C = stayman 3C = 5+c/4M, GF 3H = q-bid accepting clubs 4C = RKC for clubs 4N = 2 with QC 5C = specific king ask (cannot be signoff) 5H = KH, no KD At this point, responder can count 1s+4h+2d+5c=12 5S = Anything else, like KS? 6D = No KS, but have QD. Can't be KD because 5H denied KD. Bypassing 6C is a chancy bid. Opener guesses that responder is looking for 7N and hopes 6N is safe. 7N = that'll do I don't think u can get to 7N safely unless 4C is RKC.

♠KQJ ♥KQJ ♦AKxxxx ♣x You open 1D, partner bids 1H, what is your rebid? You open 1D, partner bids 1S, what is your rebid?

And I think exactly the opposite. After 1H 2C, opener can always rebid 2H, allowing responder to bid 2S holding 5c/4s. But after 1D 2C, opener may be stuck. Rebidding 2D with 4d is unacceptable. Rebidding 2N with an unstopped doubleton in a major is unacceptable. So allowing a 2M rebid on a min is needed.

Even when I play SAYC, I play that 1D 2C 2M does not promise extras. Otherwise, your only bids are 2D, 2N, or 3C with a min. It does not make any sense that 1D 2C 2N is min, but 1D 2C 2H is strong.

partner is QJxxxxxx(xx) - - AK(QJ) or KJxxxxxxxxx(x) - - AK(Q) (I am not counting the x's so don't comment) I am to bid 1 more for each top spade honor I hold. If partner has a zillion spades and a weak hand, then it means I need a new partner.

oops, answered in wrong question... Playing 2/1 (not SAYC), regular reverse (1♦ 2♣ 2♥) does not show extras, but high reverse (1♠ 2♦ 3♣) does show extras.

Playing 2/1 (not SAYC), regular reverse after a 2/1 (1♦ 2♣ 2♥) does not show extras, but high reverse (1♠ 2♦ 3♣) still shows extras.

I will open this hand 1S whether strong or weak. It is important not to have a "bidding disaster." If you open 1C, it will take 2 more bids to show your 5-card spade suit. If the opps start bidding the red suits, you might not get 2 more bids. Or your partner may want to sign off with a weak hand. 1C 1H 1S 2H ? Now what? Bid 2S and play in a 5-1 spade fit rather than a 6/7 - 1 heart fit? Or 1C 1H 1S 3N ? Are you missing a 5-3 spade fit? If you open 1S and never get a chance to show your clubs, that is annoying. If you open 1C and lose the spade suit, that is a bidding disaster. Avoid bidding disasters, open black 55's with 1S.

The way I like to play 3N = 7 to 7.5 tricks, no outside A or K 1m 1M 3N = 7.5 to 8 tricks, 1 outside A or K 2C 2D 3N = 8.5 to 9 tricks, 1 to 2 outside A or K 2C 2D 2H 2S 3N = 9.5 to 10 tricks, (2H forces 2S)

I think long think is a loser most of the time. Unless the situation is actually calculating something. Like working out possible card combos or lines of play. Also, some people add slowly, so adding up the hcp they have seen so far takes a little time. Other than that, long thinking spells usually result in the wrong play by overly considering false evidence. My rule (when I remember): If you are not calculating something, your first instinct is usually your best.

Agree with others, 4N, correcting 5C to 5D. X at this level is ALWAYS offensive, not penalty. If by some fluke, you have a spade stack, you will have to play the hand undoubled. 4N is generally takeout over pre-empts. Over a 3-level preempt, if you want to use blackwood, you have to dbl first. Over a 4-level preempt, 4N is takeout. The only time 4N is blackwood without a suit being established is a 4N opening bid and a 4N response to 1-of-a-suit opening bid.

4C is RKC for hearts Other bids are: 3S (3 of other major) = anonymous splinter, 3N asks which suit 4D = balanced slam try in hearts 4H = signoff 4N = quantitative NT raise

You do not have to publish a system to achieve full disclosure. You merely have to fully describe any bids that occur and what they mean. As a simplistic example, playing standard Jacoby 2N, after a 3C shortness rebid, you would describe that bid as, "club shortness, no 2nd strong 5-card suit, nothing about hand strength." To achieve full disclosure the opps do not have to know that a jump-rebid shows a 2nd strong 5-card suit. A thorough kibber could reverse engineer the whole system, but it might take quite a few hands.

The following remarkable hand was dealt many years ago at a local club (East Dealer): North: AK109876542 xxx - - South: QJ3 - xxxxx KQxxx NS makes 7S on a cross-ruff. EW can make 7H. I believe 7D is also makable if played carefully. Most played in 6S or 7S dbled. One player in 7SX, after ruffing the opening diam lead high, showed off by leading the 2S to the 3S. Of course, now there is only 12 tricks on the cross-ruff. He was so embarrassed, he did not try the ruffing club finesse for a possible 13th trick. At another table, the South player psyched a 1S overcall. Having 10 spades, North guessed that South did not have 5 spades for his overcall, but proceeded anyway to bid spades aggressively as South sank lower and lower in his chair. At the final contract of 6S or 7SX, he apologized for a "Square hand" and tabled his hand as ♠ AK109 ♥ xxx ♠ xxx ♠ xxx

right, sorry. looked at it too fast. well played

Instead of ducking the KS, why can't North play the AS and then KH, getting 2 more spades to go with the previous 4 tricks.