PriorKnowledge

The problem does not add up. With 2344 and 10HCP, after 1S 2C, you have 4clubs. You can choose to punish them with a penalty pass or bid 2N a little lite. Maybe you are thinking of a more difficult situation: 1C 1S with 2353 hand and 10hcp. If your 5-card diam suit is too weak for a NFB (or not playing that). You are kind of stuck. Most experts say to hold your nose and dbl on the principle that the one short in opps suit has to take action. I saw an expert panel once (including 2 world champs) that responded to this particular question. The problem was even worse. It was 1C 2S and responder had 9 with 2362 distribution. The panel was almost unanimous about the Neg dbl (and value of NFB that solves some of the situations).

This is a miserable 11, if u ask me. If weak 2's are 5-9, I open 1H. If weak 2's include 11, I open 2H. If weak 2's are 5-10 I probably still open 2H. Certainly that ♠Jx and ♦Qx are not full value so knocking this 11 down to 10 is reasonable.

4C 1m 1M 4m = Good 6 (2 of top 3)-4, game force. This is exactly what I have. Partner can bid slam with as little as xxx KJxx xxx Qxx

Possible auction: Dealer = x AKQxxx Ax xxxx Resp = xxxxx x xx AKQxx 1H 1Sor1N 2C 4C 4D 5C 6C 1S or 1N = Whichever shows 5s 2C = Too good for 2H 4C = gameforce club raise 4D = kickback (or redwood) for clubs 5C = 2+Q

I have heard from many top experts that anyone with lesser talent than them, "sucks." Even when describing other top experts. I have heard this even from ones I respect. This saddens me. If a player has limited bridge ability, but a great memory, it seems to me that loading up on conventions will better their game more than trying to stretch their meager bridge judgement. Maybe for some young talented players, their bridge skills will improve better if they concentrate on bridge judgement and defense. But that is not necessarily the correct prescription for all players. If you play an obscure convention and it comes up, you've just earned a top. I saw a pair stay out of slam with a balanced 18 opposite a 1S opening bid even tho they had a 5-3 major suit fit. Because trumps broke badly, even 5S was hopeless. They earned a top for not investigating slam. Different strokes for different folks.

3C for me. 2nd choice is 1C. What happens if we pass and the hand belongs us. Say partner opens 1H. Now what? How are you going to find your slam if partner has a good hand with the ♣Ax? How is partner going to know that in addition to our meager HCP and heart support we have a 7-card club suit? But if we open 3C and partner bids 3H we bid 3S or 4D. Now partner knows we have heart support with outside controls along with a long club suit. If the hand belongs to the opps, we have stopped them from using their fancy gadgets and forced them to guess. If the hand is a push, 3C will buy the contract and is probably the right place.

There are 2 hands at issue here: A slammish 4M5m hand and a weak 4M6m hand Commonly played (Without discussion, this is what I would expect playing 4-suit transfer): 1N 2C; 2S 3D = 4h5d GF hand with slam interest and no major fit 1N 2C; 2H 2S = 4s game invite only. Opener passes or 3S with 4s; and 2N or 3N with <4s 1N 2N; 3D 3S = single-suited diam hand with spade shortness and slam interest. With the weak 4M6m hand, you just transfer to the m and pass, ignoring the 4-card major. But that gives up the chance to play the 44 major fit with the weak 4M6m hand. Alternative with extended Garbage Stayman: 1N 2C; 2S 3D = 4h6d weak signoff 1N 2C; 2H 2S = 4s game invite OR 4s6m weak. Opener passes or 3S with 4s; and 2N or 3C with <4s 1N 2N; 3D 3S = 4s5d GF hand with slam interest. You gain the ability to play a 4-4 major fit with the 4M6m weak hands. But there is a price to pay. With the strong 4M5m hands, the slam bidding is more compressed because you are at the 3M level and opener has not yet chose a trump suit. In the Commonly Played version, the major suit has been ruled out at the 3m level. Some Commonly Played auctions: 1N 2C; 2S 3D; 3S 4D .... 3S=q-bid accepting diam; 4D=RKC for diam 1N 2C; 2S 3H = Anon splinter 1N 2C; 2S 4C = RKC for spades 1N 2C; 2S 4D = balanced slam try in spades But the Alternative: 1N 2N; 3D 3S; 4C ... What is 4C? Does that accept spades or diam? Seems you need 4D to accept diam and 4S to accept spades and you have lost a great deal of bidding space.

Thx. Good - I know some are playing the 2Z bid non-forcing. I am still stuck with the old new-suit-by-unpassed-responder-is-forcing rule. Since 3C is forcing you can't bid it... PERIOD. So the choice between pass, 3D, and X are judgement decisions, but bidding 3C is an error.

For those bidding 3C, showing 4♠, 3♦, 5 or 6♣ and non-forcing, pls tell me what do you bid AKxxx - Qxx Axxxx a hand where you want 3C forcing? Or QJxxxx - xx KQxxx a hand where you want 3C non-forcing but without diam support Does 1W p 1X 2Y p p 2 or 3Z = non-forcing? Just asking

3C An overbid, but not by much. 3H is more in line with holding 4D Q-bid showing 3-card spade support. Maybe a simple 4S bid was better. Although opener has all side suits covered, responder may be weak so opener cannot launch into RKC yet. 5C NO. No more q-bids. Time for keycard since you have all suits covered and really need to know about opener's spade honors. 5N Not sure... Why not just 5H? Passing 5N is a terrible, terrible error. Maybe both players were a little lost in the auction, but you can't pass 5N just because you are confused. Just bid 6S.

I play Kokish, so the 2S is forced! Kokish outline: After 2C 2D 2N = 22-23, balanced (some play this 22-24) 3H/3S = forcing, setting suit 3N = gambling, solid minor, with 8.5 to 9 tricks, like Ax Q10x x AKQxxxx After 2C 2D 2H is relay to 2S, then: 2N = 24+(25+), balanced, game forcing and have all our 2N tools available 3C/3D/3S = 2-suited with hearts 3H = hearts, but responder can pass with complete bust 3N = gambling, solid minor, with 9.5 to 10 tricks like Ax Kx Ax AKQxxxx

I prefer keeping the sandwich 1N as 15-18. There is too much light openers and light responders to trust the opps anymore. If you have 16 and partner has 10, only the 1N bid will find your game. It is also simpler :) Commonly played, your 2N shows 55 in the 2 lowest unbid suits, diam + spades here. As a learner, it is best to master the commonly played methods and advance to others when you outgrow the common methods. (In this situation, "Standard" is a misnomer, but "Commonly played" makes more sense) Whether you should bid 1S, 2D, 2N, or pass is a matter of judgment, situation, style and partnership agreement. I like to play both Michaels and unusual as either 1) Preemptive (<10) or 2) Strong (>14), And just bid the 2 suits with 10-14. I agree with your 2N, especially if non-vul or playing MP. Vul at IMP I might be more cautious.

sorry, you r right, i am wrong. i did not notice the 8 and even so, did not do enuf thinking. After further analysis (with the right hands) - lead the J is best. If the J loses to A, then run the 9. If the J loses to Q, then 9 to K. Leading the J is better when: x AQ10x Ax Q10x A10x Qx A10xx Q Which occurs 22% Leading to the J is better when: Q A10xx AQ 10xx AQ10 xx Which occurs 9.6%

my last post trying to help you - pls try to think The real simple case: If you lead the J and AQ108 is on your left, you will lose 4 tricks. If you lead toward the J and the AQxx is in either hand you cannot lose 4 tricks. Let me repeat - There is NO arrangement of outstanding cards where leading the jack gains over leading toward the J - NONE

if lho has A,Q he'll play the Q on your lead to the J.. now you say lead the 9 toward the king (which i agree with).. but that loses 2 more tricks, to the A and T.. taking the same split, lead the jack then lead the 9 and let it ride (unless covered with T) uh... If LHO has AQx and plays the Q, you don't play your J... Now the J forces the A and the K is good. This line of play only loses 3 tricks to LHO=A10x and RHO=Qx. i don't think that's true.. give rho AQT7 and lead toward the jack.. he takes the queen and exits.. you enter dummy and lead the 9 and he covers, you win the king... now he has A,7 over your 8,6 eh? maybe i'm looking at it wrong You won the K. You can't lose 4 tricks to a 4 card suit if you win one of the tricks.

This is not that difficult to work out and realize that leading the J never gains. It is a 100% losing play. A wonderful site to help you with this type of problem is: http://www.automaton.gr/tt/en/OddsTbl.htm

The problem with leading the J is that it does not help you. There are no arrangement of the missing honors that leading the J wins. Leading small towards the 9, unnecessarily loses 3 tricks to 10x in RHO Leading the 9 to the K gains only when RHO has the A. The Q in either hand can wait for the now stiff J. The correct play is: Lead towards the J. If LHO has the Q, the J will force out the ace (1st or 2nd round). If the J loses to RHO's Q, then get to dummy and lead towards the K. This gives you 2 chances to find either honor onside so that you only lose 2 tricks if trump break 3-2. If trump break 4-1 with both honors in one hand, leading towards the J will only lose 3 tricks either way. Leading the J will lose 4 tricks if LHO has 4. If trump break 5-0 either way, you are screwed. You are losing 4 tricks even if you stand on your head.

3N, wtp? No other rebid is even on the radar. All bids are "gambling". Next hand.

7S, of course. Only alternative is a 5S sign-off if you have fear partner has 0 controls. Partner will bid again with 3 controls and you can then bid 7S. 7N is very poor. Even at MP, always bid your safest slam. Especially a grand slam. Why risk turning a near top to a zero? Nothing wrong with 4N. An expert might start with 3H, limit raise+, to entice partner to make a mixed queue in hearts before bidding 4N. But leave those auctions to experts.

3C is perfect. It says, "I am weak with a bunch of clubs," which is exactly what you have. Now you pass. You have even more than partner could expect with the KS, QD, and no wasted club honors. Again - Perfect. Except for conventional bids, when you make a preempt, the opps bid over it and your partner doubles... That is penalty. The purpose of the preempt is make the opps guess at a high level. Your partner's double says, "HA HA... They guessed wrong!"

Add a little Walsh, some anti-Bart, an alternate Jacoby, multi-2D & multi-2C, and pretty soon you'll be playing expert 2/1 B)

Kaplan Inversion or Kaplan Interchange 1S = 6-11, 0-4 spades 1N = 6+, 5+ spades Opener rebids over 1S as if over 1N except 1N rebid = 12-14 with 4 spades Alternate rebid style is transfers as Gerben42 showed. Transfer rebid style works best with alternate KI: 1S = 6-11, 0-4 spades OR 12+, 5+ spades 1N = 6-11, 5+ spades

great story luis.... i can't stop smiling... hurting cheeks

More questions: Why did North pass 1C? (maybe worried about 4 card spade suit? strange) If you were playing inverted minors, then 2C shows 10+ and forces to 2N, 3C, or game. So why did opener pass? Why would North reopen rather than pass out the opps strong auction in a partial? I would prefer an immediate 3S splinter rather than a 2C bid

100% agree with ben. Dbl = Not game force, 11+ for a 3-level neg dbl, and 4 in at least one major 3N = implies a stopper and responder can pass without one