yunling

My evaluation of the hands: 1) ♠Axxx ♥Axx ♦Axx ♣xxx Good 13, always open 2) ♠Kxxx ♥Kxxx ♦KQx ♣Jx Average 11, always open for some and open NV for other 3) ♠ QJx ♥QJ10 ♦Axxx ♣Q10x A little lower than average 12, always open 4) ♠ A10x ♥K109x ♦QJxx ♣Qx Fairly good 12, always open 5) ♠ KQx ♥KQx ♦Jxxx ♣J10x Bad 11, open NV for some and not open for other Pretty close to Rainer's conclusion but I think the difference between 1) and 5) is closer to 3 count than 2.

[hv=pc=n&s=sqt53hj92dakq4ck6&w=s86haqtdt975cj872&n=sj972hk87dj82ca43&e=sak4h6543d63cqt95&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=pp1np3nppp]399|300[/hv] The hand is a little different from expectation, but a club switch still wins. This is kind of position I come across quite often playing Bird-Anthias leads which requires some practice but is quite workable. At the table a life master switched to a ♦.

[hv=pc=n&n=sj972hk87dj82ca43&e=sak4h6543d63cqt95&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=pp1n(15-17)p3nppp]266|200[/hv] Partner leads ♠8(attitude),dummy plays 9. Which suit will you switch to?

I think it is better to drop the both minor hands. For original wilcosz, if opponents fit in a major, you'll know that partner holds the other major which is not the case here. e.g. 2D-(3H)-?

IMO 5-4 3m>4-3 2M>4-4 3m but both edge is small. For 3) I'll only raise when I want 3NT to be played from the opposite side.

4♦-4♠(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) the ask is not effective with shortage in suit 1, but a next move is okay here since if partner is 1/4 in suit 2&3 5H signoff is still possible. 4NT-5NT(ask 2&3, 2/5 no honor in H even Kings) ♠KQ ♦A ♣K is still possible but won't matter

4♦-4♠(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) now there are many possible holdings but 6 is where we belong to then 4NT-5NT(ask 2&3, 2/5 no stiff honor even K) and cards placed

My structure over a 11-20 1S: 1S-? 1NT=forcing, weak without much shape or any GF 2C=weak 6+D or invite w 4+H 2D=weak 6+H or invite w/o 4H 2H=weak 5H and another place to play(either 2S or 5+m) 2S=constructive 1S-1NT-? 2C=riton ……2D=GF relay, else=natural weak 2D/H=4+, natural limited ……2NT=GF relay 2S=4+C limited ……2NT=GF relay 3x=5-5 invitational http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/72281-ideas-on-1m-response-structure/page__p__861584__fromsearch__1#entry861584 Relay at +2 is not that much a problem since that's I'll pay for splitting the range. But the 2-level response gets somewhat mixed up opposite a maximum opener. This structure don't work well with limited openings since too many hands are thrown out of 1M(minimum balanced and 1-suited) and using 2C to split the range is not ideal.

4♦-4♥(ask 1&3, 1/4) Now you'll want to be in 6 anyway. If it continues then 4♠-5♦(ask 2&3, 2/5 & a club honor) so either KQxx Qxxxx xx Qx or Qxxx xxxxx Kx Kx

4♣-4♥(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) 4♠-5♥(ask 2&3, 2/5 not stiff honor even Kings) Cards placed I'm certainly at a disadvantage here since captain is void in suit 1 and I can't skip that.

4♦-4♠(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) So either xx x AQxxxx Qxxx or AQ K xxxxxx xxxx 4NT-5♣(ask 2&3, 1/4) My method also has an ambiguity here, but it is a little better and you can usually bet p not holding all honors in short suits. The ambiguity can be solved higher but I can't stop in a reasonable contract anyway(can stop on 5NT).

4♣-4♥(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) cards placed

4♣-4♥(ask 1&2, 0/3/6) Now you know it is 3 and either 1) ♥KQ+♣A 2) ♥K+♣AQ 3) ♥Q+♣AQ+♦Q 4) ♥Q+♣AQ+♠K And you probably want to play 6♥ opposite all of them. If it continues then 4♠-5♦(ask 2&3, 2/5&stiff honor) cards placed

I'm testing a quite different method here. So after QP is shown: step 1 asks (combined)number of honors in suits rank 1&2 step 2 asks (combined)number of honors in suits rank 1&3 and the response are: +1 1/4 honors +2 0/3/6 honors +3 2/5 honors, 1/4 honors in suits 2&3 +4 2/5 honors, 0/3/6 honors in suits 2&3 +5 2/5 honors, 2/5 honors in suits 2&3, odd in suit 4 +6 2/5 honors, 2/5 honors in suits 2&3, even in suit 4, odd K etc. So theoratically cards may not be 100% solvable under this method, but it can quickly give you an idea of the concentration of high cards on a lower level(so can sign off early when slam is not possible) There is a lot to improve in this method but I don't have a clear idea so I'll run through all these hands to find the problems. For this hand it goes 4♦-4♥(ask 1&3, 1/4) P cards are not placed but you are sure to pass 4♥.

4♦ is bad even if 2♥ promises 4. No way can slam be over 50% opposite 12-14 so east should just settle for game. If 2♥ systematically can be 3, then 4♦ should promise 5.

Yes, 1552 is forced to bid 2♣. Compare to your method this wins on 19 and possibly 1/7/13 loses on 6/24 and possibly 23 Seems that it is good for thin games? 1. K8653 A5 V AKJT97....T7 KQ63 A975 Q52 1S-2D-3C-4C-5C ? not quite sure after 3C but 3C show max 5-5 so possibly a win 2. KT8542 A7 J8 K87.......A Q9543 T954 942 1S-2C-2S tie 3. AKQ54 QJ864 2 97.......72 752 AQ75 J532 1S-2D-2H-2S Responder should have correct to 2S in other methods as well so I'll consider it a tie 4. KQJT4 QT3 K KT54.......63 8 QJ875 AJ732 1S-2C-P tie 5. AKJT97 T QJ5 K32.......82 AK864 K62 J54 1S-2D-2S tie 6. KT852 QT6 AK62 7.......J9 J54 Q8543 KQ5 1S-2D-2S lose 7. AT654 A6 AK75 84.......7 754 964 AKQJ95 1S-2D-2N-3N possible win 8. AJT65 K Q65 K874.......9 J9853 K3 AJ632 1S-2C-P tie 9. KQT987 J93 4 A53.......J2 Q86 QT86 JT42 1S-2C-2S tie 10. K9752 KQ764 QT 6.......43 J932 AJ8653 8 1S-2D-2H tie 11. AJT976 V AQ63 K83......K2 AT632 52 QJ92 1S-2C-2D-2H-2S tie 12. AKJ74 K T532 543.......T9 AJ97632 AQ4 V 1S-2H tie 13. AT876 Q A4 QT643.......K5 J654 KJT92 82 1S-2D-2S possible win, especially at MPs 14. AJT87 J974 AJ A5.......Q2 532 KT94 QJ84 1S-2C-2H-2S tie 15. AKT543 K K54 763.......Q6 AJ9432 J86 T8 1S-2H-2S tie 16. AKQJ97 43 754 Q8.......32 KT975 8 KT974 1S-2C-2S tie 17. AT754 2 QJ5 KQ54.......K2 A76543 AT32 7 1S-2H tie 18. KQJT72 AJ42 3 K5.......3 95 KQJT9864 T7 1S-2D-2H-3D tie 19. AK852 T2 Q5 A532.......97 AQT53 A853 J3 1S-2D-2S win 20. A9874 V 3 KQJ8542......J6 AKT83 JT98 96 1S-2D-3C no I'm not opening 1S here 21. QT6532 AK86 K7 3.......V Q753 J9653 KQJ9 1S-2C-2H tie 22. AKT52 9754 K AT7.......74 JT AJT5 KQ942 1S-2C-2H-2S 23. J86543 A J5 AK74.......7 743 AKT8762 53 1S-2D-2S-3D 3D on 7-2 fit, small loss but usually not matter 24. A8762 J95 KQT9 2.......54 Q732 8642 A83 1S-2D-2S lose

(from nullve's link) They play 2♣=forcing NT and 2♥=good raise(which we do not need) 2♦shows 9-13 since their 1♠ is 10-20 and they need to split the range. So reconstruct it like 2♣=4-5♣ or 2-3♣&0-1♠ ...bid up the line,2NT=max 4♣ 2♦=2♠ or 6+m, if 2♠ then not 4-5♣ ...2♥=4+♥ any range ...2♠=no 4♥ not max ...2NT=no 4♥ max 2♥=6+♥ So I'll lose when you start with 1♠-2♦-P and also possibly 1♠-2♣-2♦-P but plays a lot more 5-2 major fits and will not passout a 10-card club fit at 2 level.

If you are removing so many hands out of 2♦/2♥ then I think you should seriously consider to adopt the Auken-Welland approach of 2♦=doubleton support here. It is more important than showing a diamond one-suiter, imo.

I don't think limited 1M is a significant winner here. If so, we should probably make the range of a 1M overcall narrower as well——which is contrary to expert practice. They believe double than bid a new suit with 16-17 is a loser. Opening 1M is a little different from overcalling but the risk and award are similar. My choice is extending 1M to the lower edge instead of the higher one. I think it is clear that being able to open 1M on 9/10 count is a bigger winner than 16/17. So I rate 9-15 > 11-17 ≈ 11-21 > 11-15

Those who play UCB usually start their non-fit cue at 13/14 count or so. I guess few will still play it holding a passed hand. Even for very conservative overcallers, 1NT may well be the limit for this hand so I wonder if we need to put so much energy into this possibility. For the OP hand, I'll bid 2♦.Partner can be a somewhat freaky 10 count and is able to make a second try so no need to hurry. At least it will do little harm. (though I'll still be playing in 2♠ opposite myself)

[hv=bbo=y&lin=pn|JEC,ningbian,ceppa1,yunling|st%7C%7Cmd%7C1S45QH378D5C267JKA%2CS78H2JAD69TJKC39T%2CS26TJH9TQD2378QC8%2C%7Crh%7C%7Cah%7CBoard%2019%7Csv%7Ce%7Cmb%7C3C%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cd%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C3D%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C3N%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cpc%7CH8%7Cpc%7CH2%7Cpc%7CH9%7Cpc%7CHK%7Cpc%7CDA%7Cpc%7CD5%7Cpc%7CD6%7Cpc%7CD3%7Cpc%7CD4%7Cpc%7CS4%7Cpc%7CD9%7Cpc%7CDQ%7Cpc%7CC8%7Cpc%7CC4%7Cpc%7CCJ%7Cpc%7CC3%7Cpc%7CCA%7Cpc%7CC9%7Cpc%7CD2%7Cpc%7CC5%7Cpc%7CCK%7Cpc%7CCT%7Cpc%7CD7%7Cpc%7CCQ%7Cpc%7CC7%7Cpc%7CS7%7Cpc%7CD8%7Cpc%7CS3%7Cpc%7CC6%7Cpc%7CHJ%7Cpc%7CS2%7Cpc%7CH4%7Cpc%7CC2%7Cpc%7CDT%7Cpc%7CS6%7Cpc%7CH5%7Cpc%7CSQ%7Cmc%7C6%7C]400|300|[/hv] A bit hard to bid here after 3♣. Maybe I should have passed 3♦, especially opposite a sound preempt. We overbid 6♥ and 3♠ and suffered 16IMPs loss.

I'll not bid 3♠ with the west hand and I think very few people will. 1♠-2♣-2♠-3♣-3♠-4♠ for me. Maybe you need a detailed discussion on what 3S shows.

Suppose opponent bid 1NT-3NT. You led a small card in your long suit. Dummy played Q from Qx which held the trick. Would the card followed by your partner show attitude or count? What about Qxx, QTx etc.?

I'll be here with my partner. ningbian + yunling

East slight overbid but maybe its ok under certain agreement. West acted too much, obviously.