drinbrasil

2NT. maybe i am wrong, but how we can pass with 10hcp in 2nd round without a bigg misfit and not value cards (like Qj alone, or stiff K). Also i have 2 aces wich means more than normal 8 poitns counted. Looks 2NT is easy bid here, 2 small hearts are possible with this bid and i show club stopper and not bad hand (6-8). Partner will know i have spades and clubs and can decide between pass,3NT, 3H or 4H.

cant understand the problem...really...looks the problem is how you can loss 20imps here? only way seems doubling and receiveing redouble and they making and your partners going down in 7NT in other room. :( serious talking, the Lightener double you intend is with wich significate? you have one trick, if this means partner to lead diamonds you make one trick and not clear if its good (imagine partner have KQ♥ and lead diamonds....the only way for 6NT if dummy have KQJxx o diamonds...)

If the situation was similar, lets say, you have in dummy: AKQxxx and in hand x you play AK of ♠ and both play small cards, now you have to decide to play Q (and play your last loser out or to run finesse in other suit (no more entries in dummy), does the math is exact same? Like this deal playing 7♣ [hv=n=sakq432h5432d432c&s=s5haq6dcakqjt9876]133|200|lead was ♠[/hv] how is the maths now?

1Nt is alternative like 6NT is...very bad. for who dont play 3 cards raises, 2♦ looks very good, 6 card suit and minimum opening.

seems something wrong here, 2♠ with 4 cards? but you missing 5♠ is -1 maybe?

maybe i should tell is IMP league. my bid was 4♠, and was all passed. 4s -1. in the other table, bidding was: 1♠-2♥-3♠-4♥ 4♠-X ppp i bid 4♠ at once thinking in let more pressure to opponents, 3♠ in the other table gave oportunty for opponnets exchange infos imo. 2♠ is out of question for me, because in many situations your partner will be totally out of game as he will expect as 3 spades in your hand and can easily make errors in analises when he have to decide to double or bid. for example: 1♠-2♥-2♠-3♥ P-4♥ ? now your defend? :D if you pass partner will know what of your hand? my partner criticzme in same way as i have only 4 card support, and from our methods i should bid only 3♠. but as i see in this topic this is very variable and depends how you have your raises in your system. thanks for participation.

[hv=n=skqxxxhqxdkxxxcxx&w=saxhaxxxdxcqjxxxx&e=sxxhkjxxxxdq10xxcx&s=sj109xh10daj96cak83]399|300|[/hv] that was full hand. I decided to double, was a correct call as lead of singleton ♣ would defeat us, anyway, after thinking about situation i see pass of partner as nonforcing, as pointed from others here, he have passed hand and can have no attacking stuff. I double with my hand in this one...(but was down because K of ♠)

because he is to weak to make a neg. X, ... he is also to weak to bid 3D. With kind regards Marlowe if he wants make any action with a 6-5 hand in unbid suits looks fair better X than 3♦... :P

♠Kxxx ♥x ♦xxx ♣QJ9xx this hand at nvul x vul, and the bidding comes simple: 1♠ - 2♥ - ? how you make decision between 3♠/4♠ or any other bid? Do you can see arguments for both biddings?

why your partner just not use negative double after 2♠?

I had last night in last round of local league: ♠ J109x ♥ 10 ♦AJ96 ♣AK83 you vul x nvul and the bidding was: partner opp1 me opp2 pass 2♥ X 4♥ 4♠ p p 5♥ p p ? ok, 5 level belongs to opponents, you are vul and partner bid to make 4♠. How you think in this hand to double or bid 5♠? Does pass from partner is forcing in this situation? whats your rule with your partner?

if pass and then 5♦ is invite to slam, perfect. If 4N is blackwood, good also. Bad for 6♦ is partner with A of ♠ + A of ♦ and 2 small clubs...but still will have 50% guess...not abad 6 for most of hands my partner have bid 3♦...(maybe my partner is more conservative than yours...)

So in really as he lead ♣ and played 2 hearts, we have both with 10 cards, and the chance for K + arbitrary Q is then 9/19, or 9:10, so 52,6% for try suit 3-3. I think the maths i make 3 posts above is near way of thinking but i dont had in mind played cards to do that...but diference is very small.

thanks, i was making my post when you already posted,,,,(i had my maths in head and just now put in paper...). in the table i could not evaluate corectly % from head and though was aprox equal. bad tits shouting me i played 48% x 36% what i ignored. in real life as % was near equal for me, i had some inferences from how tit was angry playing hearts and from not 4-2 in my left (against 7 i have 100% sure he with KQxx would split hearts for sure), so i played for hearts 3-3.....and won :P in other table guy did automatic finesse and lost. thanks all for thinkings in this thread.

i made some maths, dont know if is correct, you can correct me pls, maybe i am wrong way (all values aprox). the finesse i work with 50%, so i need 3-3 be better than this to work in this line. so chances for 4-2 suit was 48% chances for 3-3 suit was 36% as we dont have other possibilities for suit we have (isnt 6-0 or 5-1) chances for 4-2 suit was 57% (48/84) chances for 3-3 suit was 43% (36/84) so my cases are of success x down are 2 in 30 in the 57% no sucess 57/30*2 = 3,8% 2 in 20 in the 43% sucess = 43/20*2 = 4,3% then i have 4,3+3,8=8,1 and this means around 53% for suit 3-3 now....better than finesse :P but i dont know if i am missing something.....or is totally wrong way to calculate this.... :blink:

dude you only need 2-2 trumps if you play a spade to the king... Basically I think its KQxx/xx vs Hxx/Hxx. In theory this is not true as you have restricted choice stuff on the Hxx's but in practice they just always play low, so I think going for Hxx/Hxx is the best shot. (plus if it doesnt work out you have the admittedly remote squeeze chances that ch00 pointed out as a fallback)> yes, i have to decide to play trumph to jack and hearts 3-3, or spade to K, diamond finesse.

both played xx frmo hands

jchiu, right, correct, need 2-2 trumphs, but whats your maths in the situation i published. whats the chance for finesse x chance for hearts 3-3? with Qxx in my right ple good play of Q in 2nd would catch me. but i have entry in A of diamonds if trumps no 2-2.

If partner have Qx in hearts you want play 3NT from his hand (but he wont bid it after 3♥), if he have singleton you want be in 5-6 diamonds, so i would try 3H (in very luck day will find he with Kx or Qxx). If he have normal hand with 4-2-4-3 for example, without stopper, and bad hand, maybe he bids 3♠ and i will try 3NT, if he dont have spades, so probabily 5 diamonds, i will be not so bad in 5♦....this without any agreement about 2NT bid.

Hi all, Was playing 7♣ in this hand: ♠Ax ♥x ♦AJx ♣AKQ10987 and dummy ♠Kxx ♥AJ10xxx ♦Qx ♣J2 The guy lead was clubs, won in hand, so i cross to A of hearts, ruff in hand, both guys playing twice small hearts. Now i have to go to dummy in K of spades and decide, if i play for hearts fall 1-1 or to make diamond finesse. Can anyone calculate here what is better play in moment? Dont forget in my left playing against 7 guy dont have KQxx or he would split honors without problems (but dont need take this in consideration for maths). Also hearts distrbuiton is -2 or 3-3 from start as we know now. :P

If your ♥finesse loses, he back ♥ and your entry was useless.

My idea was like Dwingo understand. The mean. When i am playing and waiting for next rounds, i am always making my cumulative imps or matchpoints mean. If BBO make this for me, i can see more tv :-)

Hi, Suggestion: Software can calculate averages each round, and we can then seee in movie at end of each round. Didnt look dificult. Sry if have this topic yet...i didint noticed :-) Adriano

I will post soon. lts not small and is in portuguese, but tomorrow i can post. I will post and please, you can criticize. Ths Adriano

with 5323 must rebid 1♠...its the better choice.