frank0

There are some posts in this board discussing about how important cardplay is in bridge and how to quantitatively measure it. Let's talk something a little bit more practical-how do you actually improve your play? What's the way you improve your play? Or if you're teaching bridge what's the way you teach your students? I personally more interested in solving problems on books more than playing real deals. I usually find my play on real game is much worse than my ability of solving problems(Maybe when I solve the problems I know it's tricky and the obvious play must be wrong). Is that normal or awkward? Hope you can share your experience.

First I put the rule here Bypass rule: If a player bypasses a natural notrump bid to make a nonforcing bid, then later bids notrump uninvited over an opposing bid, that notrump bid is unusual (showing additional distribution, not offering to play in notrump). Yesterday I was playing on BBO and my partner bid 2♣ then later compete with 3NT, so I follow the rule and conclude that because he bypassed 1NT so 3NT must be unusual showing a distribution hand with ♣ and ♥. But actually my partner had ♠A54 ♥2 ♦A65 ♣AKQ873, he just wanted to make 3NT with a little help with my hand. [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=pp1d2c2sp3d3n]133|100[/hv] So 1.How do you generally treat this 3NT as? 2.Can anyone explain a little bit more(maybe with example) about bypass rule? I don't quite understand. 3. How would you bid my partner's hand?

[hv=pc=n&s=sj9642hkt5d9caqj9&w=skqt8753h8743dc73&n=shaqdqjt76532ct42&e=sahj962dak84ck865&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=1d1sp1n2cp2sp3hppp]399|300|lead:small S <br>Result:3H-2[/hv] I sit West, non-regular partner, sayc. Did I bid my hand correctly? What auction do you think is the best for all people?

Is forcing pass on in this auction?

[hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1sp2dd]133|100[/hv] [hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1sp2d2s]133|100[/hv] [hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1sp2d2n]133|100[/hv] [hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1sp2d3d]133|100[/hv] Any idea(useful partnership agreement) about the difference between all these auctions?

[hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hdp1sp2s]133|100[/hv] and [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1hdp1s2h2s]133|100[/hv] Is the meaning of 2♠ same or different in the above two auctions?

Both of them are takeout (a)Delayed takeout double, E has strength to compete at 2 level but pass over 1C, the only possibility is E has strength in ♣, short ♠ and has no proper bid at first round. For example, ♠x ♥Kxxx ♦KJxx ♣AKxx is a perfect hand for E (b)E don't want to sell contract at 2 level, the double shows a 3-suited hand, short ♥. E may have ♠AKxxx ♥x ♦Qxxx ♣Kxx

Hmm, most bridge players more or less use some two-suited conventions in competitive bidding. For example, michael, unusual NT, complicated convention aganist 1NT or artificial 1C, etc. The problem is I really don't know what's the minimum strength requirement of those conventions. Bridge books usually give me answers like, it depends on vulnerbility, seat, agreement, T/9 in your suit, wasted value in short suit, blablabla... Yes all of these are true but that's probably not enough for me to understnad. I'm wondering why there is no simple rule like rule of 2-3-4 for single suit preempt. For example if someone told you minimum michael 2C over 1C white vs. white is KJ932 KT864 32 2 (a random hand I make)then how do I know whether JT9876 QJT98 2 2 is enough? Or should I accept partner's 3S the invitation with AK543 A5432 32 2 ? So can anyone tell me (a)What's the way you evaluate the strength of the two suited hand? (b)How do you answer if I ask you(assume I'm your regular partner) what's the minimum hand of red vs. red unusual 2NT over 1S open?(e.g. you give a few example of hands, you simply give HCP range, you teach me some mysterious formula on evaluating playing strength of two-suited hand, etc.)

pass wins when you can not make 3NT, 1NT wins when you can make. Partner were likely(although not necessary) to open 1NT if you have enough HCP to make 3NT so I vote for pass.

Clear pass in my view, this hand is too balance to bid.

1.SA, ruff a small spade, trump to dummy, ruff the last spade,draw the last trump if necessary, lead a small club to T(9) and claim. 2.small S at trick one, E must win and E cannot lead D, win whatever E leads(H or C), draw trumps,SA pitch a C, CAK ruff a C, if C is 3-3 you cross back to dummy with a trump and use C winner to discard D, if not you finesse DA.

1. Ace of spade and look at partner's signal 2.a small H

To quiddity: thanks, I'll appreciate your answer, the original answer in the book is correct.

Very unlikely to make, you should assume no trump loser and you still have 4 possible side suit losers. Even worse they lead CK so you have no timing setting up your HJ or DQ. I'll win the first C play SKSJSA hope W has SQxx. Then cross back to hand with HA and lead C to T, you can make further plan after you see who wins third round of C and plays which red suit.

1. I would pass on that hand because after 1H-X-XX your pass after 4S is forcing pass which shows some interest in keep bidding but partner still choose to defense so there is no reason to change partner's decision. 2. A small trump probably, it seems like they want to cross-ruff minors or two black suits.

1NT range? MP or IMP? I assume it's 15-17 NT and IMP. I'll bid 3N because red vs white it worth taking a risk. If you double and partner bid a major you feel unconfrotable.

No, pass and if it goes 1H-p-2H-p-p then you double 2H. An alternative choice is overcall 1S, which is OK for a good 4 card suit. For our side vulnerable I strongly prefer pass.

Bid 2C, although the shape is bad for 2 level overcall(5-3-3-2) the suit quality can compensate it.

To CSGibson: thanks for your response, I didn't pay attention on that. We can not play pick up the chance of both CQxxx and dropping DQ. However, if I play this way, after I win SA, I finesse CQ immediately, if it works(if not works) I cross back with D, cash DAK and finesse again. For this line I make it when CQ on and not 5-0, which is 48%, and an extra chance is DQ drop and CQ on with 5-0(when I cross back with DA and cash DK if I see DQ drop I don't care about distribution of C at all). The line given by answer is about 45% if I don't miscalculate. Or, another alternative line is cash DAK first and hope CQxx on, probability is DQ drop: 48%*2/6+15%*1/6=18.5% (4-2 48% and 5-1 15%) CQxx on: 68%*50%=34% (3-2 68%) Total chance: 1-(1-18.5%)(1-34%)=46% (roughly) Which is also slightly better than the line given by answer. So I still don't quite understand the answer. Any additional comment?

I was looking at volume 2 problem 106, here is the question and answer TWO QUEENS MISSING S Q3 H QT72 D 2 C AKJT43 --------- S A2 H J65 D AKJT98 C 62 EW vulnerable, bidding is 1D-2C-2D-2H-2NT-3NT(opp all pass) Opening lead: S5 Question: You put up the queen-but would this hand be in here if the queen held? Of course not. East plays the king. Plan the play. Answer:You have two powerful minor suits and if you can bring home either one for six tricks you make your contract. But which one? Back to the basics. When you are missing a queen in each of your two suits, and bringing in EITHER suit will give you your contract, play the ace-king of longer suit(clubs) and if the queen has not dropped take a finesse in the shorter suit, (diamonds). ---------------------------- My question is I think the answer here is wrong, follow his line we only make when CQ dropped or DQ on and D3-3, so the probability is CQ siglenton or doublenton 28%*1/5+68%*2/5=32.8% (28% is probability of 4-1, 68% is probability of 3-2) DQ on and 3-3 36%*50%=18% (36% is probability of 3-3) So combination percentage is 1-(1-32.8%)(1-18%)=45%(roughly) However, if we play dropping DQ and finesse CQ, we make when DQ dropped or CQ on and C not 5-0 probability of CQ on and not 5-0 is 50%*96%=48%>45% (96%=68%+28%,3-2 or 4-1) In addition we still have chance to drop DQ so actual probabilty of this line is much higher. Do I miscalculate or the answer is wrong?