Tramticket

As cyberyeti says, the 2H response created a game forcing situation and 3H would be a normal bid, setting hearts as trumps. This makes the jump to 4H a strange and unusual bid. I don't have any agreement on the meaning.

South always has the best hands. Pick up any book or magazine article and you will find that south is invariably the declarer.

"Whatever trump honour" is very likely singleton and will likely promote your knave.

There are various suggestions on how to adjust the loser count. Many add a loser for an ace-less hand!

Would you open 1S with: QJ754 83 Q953 AQ (in a strong NT context)?

The sequence 1S-4S shows a hand weak in high-card strength with distributional strength. The reason for taking up three rounds of bidding is to deny the opposition the space to compete. It is foolish to jump to 4S here because (a) the opposition have had the opportunity to bid, but have remained silent; (b) you own the boss spade suit; © you have a semi-balanced five points. There are many hands you could construct for partner where 2S might fail, never mind 4. I would raise to 2S, but I would be prepared to compete to 3S. Really? I count 9 losers.

Difficult decision, but I think that I lead a trump.

I see no reason to open that South hand. And I open almost all 11 counts.

Transferring, then bidding a quantitative 4NT seems about right, partner will bid on with either maximum or with trump support.

I don't know David personally, but I have noticed him online a few times recently - he seems to be part of a team in the EBU's online teams league. Yes I agree that sadly my call was a lucky bid. I had largely stopped playing on line, mainly because I fall into bad habits such as playing too quickly. It was an impetuous bid, which happened to work ... and that started me wondering ...

I am no fan of Support Doubles in the context of a weak NT system. But that is because we use Double to show the strong NT type hand. Distinguishing four and five-card club holdings is far less important in my opinion.

What would you use the sequence 1D-1H-2S for? Given that this nine-playing-trick hand makes game opposite 109XX XXXXX X XXX or AX XXXXX X XXXXX, it looks like a game force to me. Or do you have some other use for this sequence? As an aside, I see that your second auction demonstrates an example of 4th suit forcing by opener. :)

This may be a regional thing. I have seen it stated before on this site that only responder has a 4th suit forcing bid available. I think that in the UK, most would treat a bid of the 4th suit by responder or opener as artificial and forcing (for one round only is usual here). I checked a book on my shelf at random (Klinger) and it certainly mentions 4SF by both responder and declarer. The distinction may not be all that great, as I would expect a 4153 (or similar) distribution for this sequence. But I don't think the 3C bid "promises" diamond length. Yes, I would have jumped to 2S with declarer's hand and yes, I would have got too high.

Yes, but this doesn't address the question asked. Let me give you another go: [hv=pc=n&w=sak6hq98763dt72c5&e=sjt8743h5dkj5cq62&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=p2h(Weak%20Two)ppp]266|200[/hv] You are playing absolutely standard weak two bids. Unfortunately you are still playing in a 2♥ contract and have missed your nine-card spade fit. The question remains: given that both opponents passed, do you expect the odds of a 3-3 break to be greater or less than 36%?

And your basic system is? In other words, did 2m create a game force?

You are left to play in a low-level part-score when the opponents clearly have the values to compete. This might be because: (a) the points are evenly divided and they are both looking at balanced hands with no biddable suit or (b) the opponent with the strength is sitting with values in your suit. But which alternative is more likely? To give you an example: [hv=pc=n&w=sak76hq9863dt72c5&e=sjt843h75dkj5cq62&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=p2h(Weak%202-suiter%2C%205%20hearts%20and%204%2B%20in%20any%20other%20suit.)ppp]266|200[/hv] Playing pairs you open 2♥, which in your methods shows a weak two-suiter (five hearts and 4+ in any other suit). Although your opponents have a combined 24 HCP's, they have chosen not to bid. The a priori odds of a 3-3 break are about 36%. Given that both opponents passed, do you now expect the odds of a 3-3 break to be greater or less than 36%? (Yes, I know that there are other clues from the lead and early play - but I am interested in the inferences that can be drawn from both opponents staying silent).

Just to be clear, the pass of 1NT doubled was described as "to play". Yes I am aware that there is an inconsistency between wanting to play 1NT doubled (not game) and wanting to play in a 4H game. It is possible that a redouble would be artificial, so the choice was to "take the money" in 1NT doubled or bid a more speculative 4H (and 4H might have become less speculative in the context of my 2D bid). My guess was a heart suit that he was hoping would run and nothing outside. I understand your opinion that you would not be bidding over 4H, whatever the explanation. :)

I asked and was told "to play". What hand do you picture for East? Presumably about a nine-count, with long hearts and a source of tricks for his partner in a 1NT contract, so most of the nine points are in hearts.

[hv=pc=n&s=st987h5dkt8743ct9&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1n(Weak%20%5B12-14%5D)d(Penalty%20%5BA%20good%2015%2B%5D)p2d(Weak%20%5Bgenerally%20fewer%20than%204%20HCP's%5D)pp4h]133|200[/hv] Match Points (on-line - of course, unknown opponents) West opens a weak NT and partner doubles for penalties - which for us will usually show 16 HCPs or 15 and a good lead. You don't have much defensive strength and take out partner's double to 2♦ (do you prefer 3♦? or 2NT, showing a two-suited hand? or pass?). You have already decided that you will be happy to bid 2♠ if East competes with 2♥. But East surprises you by jumping to 4♥. do you bid 4♠?

It helps if you give the hands, the vulnerability, the form of scoring etc. Also, a description of your general methods (e.g. 4 or 5-card majors?). But in the absence of more detail, the best advice us that you should stretch to bid more more level in competition, but not two more. So yes, I would probably bud 3H.

First, you should be playing Lebensohl or similar (e.g. Rubinsohl). If not, then I would address this first. Your choice may affect the use of a double. We play Lebensohl and we play that (1) If the opponent's bid is natural (shows that suit and may show a second suit as well), we double for take-out. (2) If the opponent's suit is artificial we play that a double shows a balanced hand with invitational values.

What is your basic system? Strong or weak NT? If you are playing a strong NT then I expect partner to hold the weak NT type hand. I would have bid 3NT already - but not with a lot of confidence. If you are playing a weak NT then I expect partner to have an unbalanced hand - presumably a 6-card diamond suit since partner doesn't seem to have a second 4-card suit. 3NT still looks to be the better option and I would be more optimistic based on the hope of running 6 club tricks.

Thanks. Yes this is the same as my line in the essentials.

Yes, but on (say) K♥ lead, you have lost an entry and can't draw trumps. So: (1) K♥ lead, won by the ace. (2) Diamond to the ace (If you start with the King of diamonds, you will fail!). (3) Club to the ace. (4) Ruff a club (East does best not to ruff). (5) Ace of spades. (6) Ruff a heart or spade. (7) At this point you can't draw trumps as you will exhaust dummy of trumps and leave dummy without an entry. Instead, run the clubs from the top and either (a) East ruffs in at some point - now you can over-ruff, draw trumps and still have on trump in dummy as an entry for the remaining clubs or (b)East declines to ruff and you simply take the finesse in trumps at trick 11. I think that, for a Novice/Beginner forum, there is plenty of scope to misplay this hand and it is a good hand to learn from.

Interesting hand to play. After you play the ace of diamond and learn about the bad trump break you can't afford to draw trumps because the 4-1 club split will beat you. I guess that you cross to the ace of clubs and immediately ruff a club, then cross to the ace of hearts and run the clubs until East ruffs in? Or was the winning line a dummy reversal?