mich-b

In an auction that starts 1♥ - (1♠) - 2♥ , it is by far more likely that we will need to make a decision about competing to the 5 level , than about bidding slam. Thats why many players prefer to give 4 level bids meanings intended to assist in that decision (should we bid 5♥ over 4♠?). In the rare cases when opener would still like to explore slam, he can still do it by other means , like a short suit trial bid (if you play them) , a trial bid followed by a cue bid on the 4 level, a splinter in the opps suit (♠) etc..

Do I understand correctly that you are suggesting a style in which any time a player uses Blackwood he guarantees 2 Aces? (Ok, unless partner has specifically showed one) Can you find anywhere any reference to such a style? And are you also suggesting that if you happen to hold 2 Aces when pd used Blackwood (and signed off after you showed them) you're supposed to raise if you generally like your hand? (lets assume for simplicity a sequence like: 1♣ - 1♠ 2♠ - 4NT 5♥ - 5♠)

I agree that the choice is between 4♥ and "preparing for their 4♠" by bidding 4♦. 4♦ has the drawback of helping them with their opening lead and defense , so I would bid it only if RHO had supported with 2♠ , which would make 4♠ from LHO likely. As it is , when RHO did not support , I will prefer 4♥ , maybe regretting it if LHO does bid 4♠.

(1x) P (1y) X is takeout 100% , and I have never seen it used differently. (1x) X (1y) X we play as penalty (4 card suit , some values) , which in practice rarely produces a penalty, but sometimes enables us to compete the partscore playing 2y. I did see quite a few people playing this as takeout though.

How do you continue after the 5M jump when you hold a 1st round control of the suit? Show your number of aces? bid 5♠ (their suit) ? cuebid in another suit? Do you have a way to show that you have a void and not an Ace?

Did you perhaps want to ask about (1x) - X - (1y) - X ?

I would be quite happy to play 3♠ , if pd had a weak2 in that suit , so would bid 3♠ if our Multi included only a weak major option. Since this time the Multi also includes a strong NT , I would bid 3♠ only if I had the agreement that it shows 4♥s , so that if he does have that hand , finding our 4-4 ♥ fit is easy.

Lets get the facts straightened out: I heard about this hand from the TD who was called to the table. By the time he told me about it , he already prepared a draft appeal form (in case either side would want to appeal his ruling when he gives it) on which he wrote "BIT by West after the KeyCard response".I assume from that he confirmed there was a BIT , and that he was called by the right person (North). He also told me about the "0 or 3" explanation being spoken rather than written , which means (to me) it could have been overheard. The TD could not tell me if it was in fact overheard on the NE side of the screen. So it all comes down to this: Which of the following , do you believe (deep down in your heart) was East's thought process: 1. "Pd used Ex. KCB in Spades, heard I have 1 KeyCard , and realizing we do have enough KeyCards , chose to bid 5♥ now, expecting me to raise to 6♥ if I have a nice hand. So ok, I will raise." OR 2. "Pd used Ex. KCB in spades , I showed I have 1 KeyCard ,He signed off - we must be missing 2 keycards, but ...oops , I heard from the other side of the screen that he thinks I have 0.. Hmm... Probably we do have enough KeyCards... So ok, I will raise." So, which was it?

Well, even if we ignore the hands where West chose to be tricky and use Exclusion without a ♠ void , cant he have Bluejak's hand with the minors reversed: - QTxxxx AQJxxx x or maybe - Txxxxx AQJx Qxx You think perhaps West's 4♠ was an overbid or a misbid with either of those? So what , don't your partners ever overbid? or get optimistic ? or get tempted to use a toy (EKCB) they like? luckily for West , he was able (in spite of his prior overbid) to find that 2 keycards are missing, and signoff in 5♥..Does that mean you then raise them to slam when you are off 2 keycards?

"classical" advice has been to double a strong NT (assuming you still play this as penalty) with a strong hand , and also a good lead to make from a strong long suit. However, my impression is , that people who just double a strong NT with a balanced 17 or 18 , do pretty well, sometimes by getting a penalty, but more often by enabling partner to bid on an unbalanced weak (or very weak) hand reaching a good making partscore , instead of defending 1NT.

An approach that has been gaining popularity in Europe recently is playing 2♦ as Multi for a "bad" weak 2 in a major (typically 4-8 hcp) , and 2M as a "good" weak 2 (typically 9-12 or similar). This allows you to open more aggressively, without partner being tempted to invite with moderate hands. Also , it removes some of the weaker hands from the 1M-rebid 2M sequences , which improves your precision on sequences like 1M-1NT-2M.

For those who are interested how their choice would (or would not...) work here are the full hands : (Sorry, but I dont remember the spots exactly so they may slightly differ from the original). [hv=pc=n&s=saj94hq7daj9754c9&w=s7h642dq62ckqt654&n=skt86532hj53dktcj&e=sqhakt98d83ca8732&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1dp1sd3s5c]399|300[/hv][hv=pc=n&s=skqjt9hq6da752ckt&w=s6hakj732dq63cq75&n=s742h5dkj84cj9842&e=sa853ht984dt9ca63&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1s2h2s4h]399|300[/hv] [hv=pc=n&s=sakjt62hq52d952c7&w=sha963dat643cq653&n=sq974hkjt84dkqca4&e=s853h7dj87ckjt982&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p2dp4cd4h5c]399|300[/hv] Our actions were 5♠ (doubled for -200), pass (for -420 , other table making 4♠x) and Double for -750 (other table making 5♠). No, we didnt win the match....

I would pass and doing anything else would not occur to me. It is important to understand that Exclusion RKCB definetly does not mean "I have a ♠ void , please evaluate your hand suitability for slam". What it does mean is "Please tell me how many keycards you hold excluding the ♠ Ace, and then I will bid slam if we don't miss 2 of them". In this context the meaning of the 5♥ bid by West is "Partner , sorry , but we are missing 2 keycards, you should pass".

To my mind this is the crux of the matter. Expert players don't raise their partner's signoff after Blackwood because they have a "nice hand". Even if neither the BIT , nor the loudness of the "0 or 3" explanation is established, don't you think it is far more likely that East sensed a BIT (or thought he did) or heard "something" , than just made a bridge decision that happened to work? ... but perhaps the right time has come? Side note : I was not involved in any way in this hand. I wasn't playing it , or watching it. I just heard about it , and started thinking what caused East to raise to slam. And , btw, for those who suggested a PP : how do you give a PP to a player whose team just lost a KO match and was eliminated from the event?

I don't know if EW bidding was good bridge or not , but I fail to see any legal\ethical problem with it. West "improvised" a "creative" 1NT response, East took him seriously and balanced with 3♣. If anything , I think East's balance proves he was not aware of West's occasional creativeness.

[hv=pc=n&e=sj62haj83dkckjt95&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p1c1s2hp3hp4sdpp5hp6hppp]133|200[/hv] Israel , Teams KO match, 1st half , Top level event , played with screens (East and North are screenmates). EW are experts. East explained to his screenmate : 4♠ = Exclusion KCB. Pass (after North's double) = 1 KeyCard. 6♥ made easily - West did have 2 KeyCards and a ♠ void , so there was only 1 keycard missing. NS called the director and said there has been a hesitation on the West/South side of the screen before returning with 5♥. They suggest that the raise to 6♥ was suggested by the hesitation. East explained his raise along the lines of : "I had a very suitable hand , and was sure my partner would have 2 Keycards to bid Exclusion KCB". When director tried to establish the facts , he also was informed that on the S/W side of the screen West explained that "Pass" showed 0 or 3 KeyCards. It was also suggested , that West made this explanation speaking (instead of writing) , and it might have been overheard (that was not confirmed). 1. Well, what do you really think happened? Do you believe East's reasoning for his raise? 2. How would you rule as a TD, or AC member? 3. Eventually , one team won the match by a large margin, so the result of this board didnt matter. No ruling was given (I think) , and no appeal was held. Would you pursue the issue further (as a TD, as the opps , as a random kibitzer..) ? Do you think East should face some disciplinary/ethical body, and explain his actions?

1. [hv=pc=n&n=skt97653hj86dktcj&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=1dp1sd3s5c]133|200[/hv] 2. [hv=pc=n&n=skqjt9hq6da854ckt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1s2h2s4h]133|200[/hv] 3. [hv=pc=n&n=sq974hkjt74dkqca5&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=2dp4cd4h5c]133|200|[/hv] 2D = Multi (weak 2 in either major)<br>4C = please transfer to your major<br>4H = Spades

Since 3♥ is forcing (they would have alerted if they play 3♥ as non-forcing , since this is unexpected, wouldn't they?) , you can pass now and double (or bid 4♥) on the next round. It is not unlikely for LHO to raise to 4♥ (if indeed RHO is psyching).

Agree with that. Though my ♣ support is not great, sometimes that is what my partner needs to hear , especially if he is short in ♦s. a direct 3NT usually implies more than 2 points in their suit , and since my hand can be very useful for play in ♣s I dont see why I shouldnt show it planning to bid 3NT on the next round

I would just Pass , and think this is easier in IMPs than in mp, since even if we are making game (and can find a way to get to it) , and get "only" 500 defending 4C , this is not a disaster , while going down in game surely is. I estimate we are getting usually 300 and often 500 against 4CX , and who knows if game is making for us - and how exactly can we know to get to our best fit? I have often seen opps that bid very aggressively at these colors, and I will not be surprised if partner has 2 clubs. I think Pass and lead a trump, and take whatever penalty is coming.

1NT , especially NV. Vul I might open 1♦ , since 1NT can easily be down 3 or down 4. Having opened 1D , I would rebid 2♦ , not 3♦.

We play that rebidding 3♣ requires extra strength , about 15+. The 5th ♣ is a compensation for being minimum, when you have a ♣ fit , but responder with a misfit (2452 , or 1462) but a strong hand with slam possibilities , will not be able to proceed safely after 3♣ , if the range for that is 12+. Also , we have the agreement that 1♠ - 2♦ 2♠ - 2NT 3♣ shows 5♣s - If responder is interested in a 4-4 fit there , he has to rebid 3♣ rather than 2NT.

Usually the best deceptive play is the Q from hand, because LHO may worry that if he tries to cash the King , you will ruff and use the established ♠J to discard a loser. That may be true (depending on the exact spot cards) even if RHO correctly signals his count , because LHO will know that his partner has an even number of cards , but may not know if that number is 2 or 4. Your play of Q , then 10 , will not usually work, because LHO having already established the J in dummy, will very rarely benefit from switching (only when RHO has an ace, and declarer needs one discard only), even if for some reason your opps were not able to show their count correctly.

2NT. Pass might work well, especially against someone who is known to be an unsound overcaller.

[hv=pc=n&w=s742hkt5da7ckj732&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=pp1sd2s]133|200[/hv] Teams (IMP). You Passed on your 1st turn, because your style is not to open light with minors, when vulnerable. What now? Feel free to comment about the 1st Pass , but if it really bothers you , just assume LHO was the dealer.