Lobowolf

As a general rule with respect to JT's early post about jumps being splinters except when they're not splinters and so on and so forth, a decent general rule is that if it's one level higher than a forcing natural bid, it's a splinter. So, e.g.: 1♣-1♠; 2♦ would be a forcing diamond call (reverse); so 1♣-1♠; 3♦ is a splinter. With respect to the initial hand, I certainly wouldn't open as south. I would also take a call over 4♠. Partner is willing to play in game opposite 6 points and 4 spades; I've got a great 5-card suit, 9 HCP, and a singleton. I realize that the singleton king isn't necessarily pulling its weight, but it's still a monster hand in excess of what I've promised for a 1-level response. In losing trick count terms, I've promised a 9-loser hand, and I have a 7-loser hand, or roughly the equivalent in playing strength of an opening hand, now that we've established a fit, particuarly a 9-card fit. I'd cuebid my second round control with 5♦ over 4♠. Sometimes you'll stop short of slam and make 5, just as you would have had you passed out 4♠. The relevant cases are where you miss a slam, or when you get too high. I think the first danger is more likely than the second.

No I read it but I couldn't believe it :P LOL

If I were to lead a heart, I'd lead a high one. I like Xxx against NT, and xxX against suits. The bigger question that came to my mind reading this hand was, what was partner going to do if the auction had been unopposed and your first bid had been 1♠? I'm a 1♦ bidder with your partner's hand, followed by a 2♣ rebid.

Another way to think about this. Suppose you held: ♠AQ9 ♥AQTx ♦QT9x ♣Ax Wouldn't you bid 4♥ with this hand? Suppose instead you held: ♠AQ9 ♥AQTx ♦AQT9x ♣x Wouldn't you bid 4♣ with this hand? So given the actual hand, which is the closer representation of what you actually hold? But you'd also bid 4♥ (presumably) with: ♠AQ ♥AQTx ♦QT9x ♣Axx Is the given hand closer to that, or closer to the hand with the small stiff club?

I think the most relevant questions are raised by distinguishing the auction from one in which you open 1C, and partner responds 1H (since that's in essence what he's done). If you DON'T have a reverse, then why didn't you open 1D? There seem to be two main possibilities - you intended to rebid 2C, perhaps with 5 good clubs and 4 bad diamonds, or you intended to rebid 1NT. I don't rebid 1NT with a singleton in the hand, so the only situation that really calls this into question is if I were 2-2-4-5 and opened 1C intending to rebid 1NT; then, maybe the 1S bid stops my 1NT rebid because I don't have a spade card. That's the only situation, and it's quite a parlay. If I don't have enough to revese, I open 4-5 in the minors hands 1D. Since in the posted hand, the opening bid was 1C, I must have a reverse. If I AM 2-2-4-5 without a spade card, I'll get over my matchpoint-itis and open 1D followed by 2C, or I'll bite the bullet and rebid 1NT without a spade card. Because the other relevant point is...let's not forget there's a reason reverses promise extras... on the posted auction, if partner doesn't like diamonds, he has to go to the three level to get back to my first suit. Why am I doing that to partner if I don't have a reverse?

I'd bid 4♣. My first choice would be not to have an ace in my splinter suit, but you rarely get the perfect hand. Partner will upgrade honors in the other suits, and that will be a good thing. It's imperfect, but IMO it's less imperfect than a 4♥ bid, which would suggest no shortness.

That's my answer, too, but a surprising number of very good players differed when I had it as a panel problem.

1C - 1S - X - P Does a 2D rebid by opener here promise a full reverse?

A 6 1/2 loser 10-count is nowhere near "minimal values" for my non-vulnerable balances.