fromageGB

As others have said and do, 1♦ 2M = WJS, and 1♥ 2♠ = 13+, 4 card support. The latter in context of Kaplan inversion, where while a forcing artificial 1♠ response normally denies 5 spades, if followed by 2♠ it shows a weak 6 card suit, so you don't need a WJS.

My choice is to play an artificial responder 2♣/♦ by responder and then 54xx or 45xx is no problem. Transfer to the 5 card major, and if completed (12-14, denies 4 card support) a rebid of 2♣ is invitational or better, confirming a 5 card major without the other major, and a rebid of 2♦ is invitational or better 5 card major with the other 4 card major. It's better to get opener to play the hand because the minor leads go round to his holdings. A less than invitational 45xx or 54xx starts 1NT (see below) and if opener fails to bid a 4 card major you transfer to the 5 card suit. We can't miss a spade fit because opener normally rebids 2♣ on 6 clubs without 3 card heart support, but if he is 4xx6 he will rebid 1♠ after 1♣ 1♦. An invitational or better 54xx will start 1♥, and if opener breaks the transfer to bid 2♣ he may have 4 hearts, but responder bids 2♥ invitational anyway (or 3H GF). I think this is a bit limiting. Making 1♠ a relay (normally soliciting 1NT) gives you more options, as then for example you can pass, raise, bid 2m to play, 2M as game invitation or better in the corresponding minor (if declined can end in 2NT or 3m depending on fit), 3m as natural slam suggestion. Then you can use 1NT to mean a specific awkward hand, such as in my case weak 5/4 or 4/5 majors.

Can't see what you are getting at here, as I use 1C 2M as 6 card up to 8hcp. If partner wants to bid or invite game with a strong hand he can do, or he can pass, depending on his hand. Playing stayman and transfers after a strong 1NT rebid means 2D is an obligatory transfer to 2H. This is followed by 3H with 9+hcp and 6 card, but if 5 card it can be passed for a weak takeout or followed by 2NT invitational or 3NT GF. WJS seems to fit well to me. It gives good definition to the 6 card majors. It also has the benefit that 1C 1red completion 2M is 6 card 9-12, so opener has an easy pass/invite/game decision.

Yes, I got it wrong. You need to play out the reds to see how many clubs North started with, and even if it's 50/50 taking a losing finesse still beats those in slam, which is what I overlooked.

So your 3NT has already been vindicated. Don't find the ♣Q and you are still beating all those in hearts 50% of the time. If the Q hasn't dropped I take 11.

In the context of playing a normal sort of 2/1 system with a strong 2♣, I like to open 2♦ as a bid that fills gaps in what partner wants to play, such as a classic multi, or natural. For real preference, though, 4+4+ in both majors wins - it's fun, works well, and must occur at least 3 times as often as anything else. Edit - However, both majors is better to be a 2♥ bid, and I should be switching to this unless I need 2♦ to include strong 3-suiters.

A quick count to 31 with this shape and I bid 3NT. I don't even consider anything else.

I guess you are hesitating because Lighter doubles haven't crossed the borders yet.

> Unless you want to go into one of the full assumed fit styles, the highest frequency will probably be along the lines of:- If you are going for frequency you should certainly not overlook assumed fit styles. 2♦ = 4+4+ majors (weak 2-suiter or strong 3-suiter) 2♥/♠ = natural weak 5 or 6 card suit must rate a total frequency higher than most other combinations. I'll let you do the sums ...

A nice spade sequence, 4 in a row. I could nearly do that (2♠ is jacoby for me and can show a shortage later) but we would bid 3NT after 3♠ to see if the shortage was void or singleton before ace asking with 4♠. How does your asker know whether the missing ace was not in spades with that offset by a spade void?

Agree with all that the benefits of TWalsh mean that you want to open 1♣ as often as possible, ie the weaker hands, and to me it seems silly to not put very strong hands in there as well. You have room to clarify strength later, such as with a major transfer break. Then your 1♦ open is free for whatever hands you find awkward for TWalsh, such as long diamonds or both minors with a major shortage. Maybe we should change the forum title to "non-natural philosophical discussion" if we need to resolve what a banana is and what it means. A profound question, and I have no answer. Is it 42?

If you start with 1♦ then you must reply 2♦. It all goes wrong from there. There seems nothing wrong with the agreements, but West must know that 3♣ on their bidding to date sets the club suit as trumps, so there is no problem with minorwood - it is obvious when trumps are agreed. I have a similar situation (using kickback) in that you cannot change the trump suit after agreement. All you can do is live with your first mistake. The more meanings you assign to bids, the less freedom you have in correcting an error. You can't even continue through ace asking and convert the eventual 5♣ to diamonds, because that is now (possibly, I don't know the methods) the K ask. Tough. I can't suggest a good sequence given the stated methods because I don't know how you (ie East) revert to a minor when you don't have the spade stop to bid 3♠ or 3NT. If 4m is minorwood, what do you do? At least playing kickback you can deny spades and sign off in 4m, and let partner bid 5m or 4NT to play if he wants to, or 4m+1 to ace ask. . . . 1♦ 2♦ 2♥ 3♣ 3♦ 3♥ ... ???

The numbers man should be plauded for raising and discussing ideas on how to handle hands to convey information in a regular partnership bidding system. I'd like to see more of this happening in the forums. While one may not choose to adopt an idea as expressed, it may lead to further thought on one's own methods and whether they should be rethought or improved. Not only has this thread brought the OP method to light - some believe it should have been kept under the bushel - it may have also introduced referenced ideas such as misiry to a new audience, or indeed the ideas of Madam Maf.

I think 3♥ means "I meant to pull out the 1♥ card last time, but you bid before I had a chance to correct it". Edit : I know you can hardly claim "mechanical error" if you passed instead of bid, but you get the idea : impossible, or Alzheimer's.

I don't understand this. I am not an expert, and it is obvious to me that I duck with Kx or Kxx or Kxxx. How do you avoid the club losers?

As you say, it depends on philosophy and hence the system and methods you adopt. With 3235, 1NT is the definitively correct answer if you define a 2♣ rebid as 6+ cards. I haven't found the style a big loser. Having definitions at this low level does help clarify distribution and hence, sometimes, find better contracts.

And maybe it doesn't. What do you do when the finesse wins? Even if I'm West I don't take the K at trick 1.

This is not the case. I rarely play online, but when I have I had a quick SAYC summary printout in front of me. I have forgotten everything now, but do remember that SAYC had much I found unexpected. I suggest there are hazards both ways. Blackshoe's answer is probably acceptable for one hand, even if against the rules. I think I may be a little more polite, though. "I am not sufficiently familiar with the method to have confidence in my ability to make the correct bids. Would you mind awfully if this is the last hand for me?"

Mr Ace, good post and I agree with you, though a 2♣ rebid is systemic with 6 cards (1NT denies 6). My point is that RKCB has hidden dangers lurking, and you need to make a suggestion and receive cooperation before using it. With a clean ace method, on this hand I can ask immediately, because I am going to play in 5 regardless. Some other hands do not give you the room to seek cooperation first.

I don't think you can do this by consensus, because to play exclusion you need to discuss it. I don't really see the point of it being a cue as there is no room for responder to bid anything. I play this as exclusion, surely much more useful.

It looks like you are competing against equal numbers of 130, 150, 400, -50, but I expect more than a few to make 3NT as well. You need to make the contract. It seems by only chance is cross-ruff and hope for happy diamond break. ♥A, ruff, ruff, ruff, ruff, 2 diamonds, and 2 more trumps = only 9 tricks, so after 2nd D a low ♦ ruff, and exit in clubs. Needs ♠K on right, and 4-3 club break. In matchpoints I have no time to think of anything beyond this.

I did play transfer pre-empts at one time but gave it up because it gives opponents far more opportunities (if they have discussed them or have general meta-rules). They can X to show the bid suit. They can bid your suit as a takeout. They can pass then bid, or they can bid immediately.

Interestingly, those that use RKCB by South without knowing of the heart ace opposite seem to be assuming that North has 3 aces when he replies to show 0 or 3. What would you say as dealer with K7 KQ4 KT J98762 ? I open 1♣.

1♣ . (1♥) . X = 4+spades 2♣(=6 card) . 4♦(ace ask. You want to be in 5♣ at least.) 4♥(1, or 3 without) . 4♠(which?) 5♠(3, with 1 or 2 kings, denying ♥K, has ♠K and perhaps ♦K) . 5NT(♦K?) 6♣(no) . 7♣(pity, I wanted to play in 7NT. The lack of heart bidding leads me to suspect they do not have an 11 card heart fit, so I expect a ruff)

I think a convention is a rose. B-)