flytoox

Red vs white,sitting south I was dealt the following cards: S: -- H: ATXX D: KJXXX C: AXXX I open 1D, LHO came in with 3S. After some pause from the north/east side (with a curtain), two passes followed. It is my turn. 1) Is this a clear balancing dbl? 2) Is it clear pd broke the tempo? 3) Should my bid taking into account the answer to 2)?

Pd and I have different view about the following sequence. SO here I am to look for your opinion. W E 2D! 2H 2S 3S? 2D=One major suit, weak. What is this 3S? Is 3S just a preempt bid or an invitational bid?

I like this discussion and would like to take a ride and ask a related question. Suppose the bidding goes: W N E S 1S P 1N 2H 2S X? What should this dble mean? Is this different from W N E S 1S P 1N P 2S X

This is pd's hand. [hv=pc=n&n=skt3hakj965dkc975]133|100[/hv] At the table I bid 3N and made it. But I am not sure 3N is right bid. If we play 2/1 with solid opening style, then here I think 2S as a kind of game try is a nice choice. A furthere question is should 2S show minors or this kind of hand. Lamford's post looks we can have both.

:P

What would 2S mean if discussed? Should it be this kind of raise, or showing minors? Do you know this kind of convention?

Haven't been here for a while. This is a board I played last week and I think it is an interesting one to discuss. Playing 2/1， you sit south and are dealt the following hand [hv=pc=n&s=sa82hq2d5432ca832]133|100[/hv] Pd opened 1H, you responded with 1N, pd bid 2H. Now what do you do?

Yes, then the question is, is dbl here T/O or for blood?

White all.

Playing presion in a MP tournament with a solid pd, You sit in North,holding S: K943 H: 97532 D: 4 C: 652 White all, Pd deals and opens 1C, West comes in with 1H, you pass, east passes too, pd rebid 2D, both west and you pass, East comes in again with 2H. Two passes to you. What do you do? W N E S - - - 1C! 1H P P 2D P P 2H P P ?

Well done! I only wish you can gossip more here about the legend of Bob, and yourself:)

East starts with five or six clubs. He has two diamonds, three hearts, and two or three spades. West dbled 2D with only four diamonds. If he has 3343 will he dbl 2D? I think more likely he has 4342. So I finesse.

This is really not a question of right or wrong. Instead, this is about partnership agreement. Suppose you play precision opening 1C with 16+. Holding S: A9832 H: K D: AKJ432 C: 2 Do you open 1C, planning to rebid diamond and then spades or you will open 1D and then rebid(jump if necessary) spades at some level. I think this is important, as this will help pd to evaluate his hand properly.

I go for 4S.

Pass. Pd didnt open a weak two or three. MY hand is pretty bad given the auction. As for the 1st round dbl, I can accept it but prefer 3N.

You need to dbl to protect your game. We do have lots of defensive tricks, dont we?

2S for me.

tough one. Guess I will pass.

1. 4H. This hand has every thing except trump honor. IF pd has a singleton high heart (let's be a little optimisitc), slam is likely on. Both SQJ and DQx are good. 2. Not really, you still dont know much about pd's hand. Better to have pd cooperate, and better to tell him what you have, i.e., long heart suit. So bid 4H. 3. 4C is cue, promising really good heart suit.

Nice analyses by Justin. I guess I will pass, but definitely not so deep thinking.

I will just bid a simple 4S.

I think you overestimate this hand. 4H is enough, I would be happy to make it. Qx of Diamonds are really awful.

Good point about limited raise, Ben. But we dont have limited raise for minors so we must keep at least one of 3C or 2N for part score. The structure you gave looks good. I need some time to digest it.

I like 4N.

I actually like the idea to raise minor with side major suit if minor suit is longer than major. This will help to bid shape and help pd to reevaluate his hand. My key concern is, leaving 2N and 3m both for partial is not very efficient, especially for sound opening style players. Exploring slam possibility or looking for 5m with unbalanced hand are far more important than staying in low level part score contract. This is particularly true in IMPs, so why not keep 2N as GF and just leave 3m as the only way out of game?