Quantumcat

I've spoken to my partner and he pointed out that he actually held ♠KQT97 ♥xxx ♦Qx ♣xxx, not ♠KQT986 ♥xxx ♦Qx ♣Jx. Obviously he would have bid with six spades, I just remembered his hand wrongly. Also, he said I should have mentioned that 1♦ was artificial, showing 1+ diamonds.

As many other people have said, it is probably the amount of learning needed to start enjoying the game that puts people off. Any other game, a quick five minute explanation of the rules is all that is needed. I played 500 in high school, so I didn't need to learn too much before I could play without constantly asking questions - I could handle basic auctions already and knew about drawing trump, returning partner's suit etc. Probably the same for the others who said they started with Spades. Maybe it is better to be content teaching kids to play Whist (or other partnership trick-taking games that are simpler than bridge) and not bother them with bridge until they communicate that they are ready for more of a challenge?

I would play 4♣ as non-leaping Michaels, therefore 4NT is keycard for spades (4♦ would be keycard for clubs) :-)

You have: ♠J73 ♥4 ♦AKT32 ♣AK43 RHO opens 1♦. You can overcall 2♦ natural, if you wish. We usually have a very good six card diamond suit (or club suit for 2♣ over 1♣) for this, since partner almost never has support. Other bids: a double would show 16+ any shape (except takeout shape) and a 1NT overcall would be takeout. Auction continues 1♥ from LHO, 1NT from RHO (they are playing a 14-16 1NT opening). Do you bid now? If you still pass, the auction continues 2♥ from LHO, pass from RHO. Do you bid now? I considered a double, but partner might have four good hearts or even five, and not a lot of strength (and won't be expecting so much from me), and won't be able to pass out the double when they go off. He might even bid a bad four card spade suit or heaven help us a three card suit, all when 2♥ was going off. On the plus side when he has equal minors or 1-card longer clubs he will bid 2NT, expecting me to bid clubs with equal length. All in all I decided to pass, being content if 2♥ went off one or two. What would you do differently, and please give some good reasons :-)

Had a relay auction a while ago where the opponents came in part way through with an insufficient bid. Our general rules on interference over a relay was pass was first step and double was second step, if the interference was three steps or less above the relay bid, otherwise we reverted to natural. The insufficient bid allowed us a gigantic amount of room which we used to find an excellent grand slam, with room to ask about 9s and 8s if we had needed to. Without the insufficient bid we might have still bid it but it would have required a slight gamble at the end once we ran out of room (not enough room to ask about a jack in a particular suit). One opponent was quite annoyed at her bottom board and grumbled that we weren't allowed to use the room given to us by her partner's insufficient bid since you are not allowed any agreements. However she didn't call the director about it (edit: still called the director about the insufficient bid, when he said "you may accept it.." I said "sure, I'll do that" and that was it). If an opponent makes an insufficient bid over our relay bid, are we allowed to use pass and double (and all the bids in between their bid and partner's relay bid) as relay steps? Or do we have to start with the next bid over partner's relay bid, same as if the opponent had passed? Thanks.

lol yeah. He decided it is too risky opening 3♣ vul with his balanced hand and not so good suit. Yet he decides it's OK to walk into a live GF auction, still vul, still not so good suit, and still balanced!

I just reread your post and I understand now :-)

What do you bid over 2♥ by partner? I know it is very unlikely (no negative double), but they will have a very weak hand if so and mightn't they take your double then 3♣ as a strong hand, or maybe a strong hand with diamonds and longer clubs? They might do something silly. Also with such a weak hand opposite you may not be able to make nine tricks even if they do pass. Over 2♦ you can probably pass though you might be in the wrong contract (if they have mild club support, or have a decent amount of HCP but not quite enough to bid 2♦ the first time and no stopper to bid 1NT the first time). Partner could easily have a spade stopper/length but be too weak to have bid 1NT to start with. But then you only have eight tricks (your seven clubs, partner's spade stopper). So you still don't want to bid 3NT over that. I think the opponents probably have the majority of the HCP and not a spade fit (no spade raise, yet no 1NT or double by partner). It might be right to pass (1♠ goes off, but they bid a better contract that is not going off over 2♣, and 3♣ goes off), but I'm a chicken and if it is wrong partner will look at the hand record afterwards and say, "you didn't rebid that suit?!?!". Anyway partner might have a bit of club support and some useful cards e.g. the QJ of diamonds, and 3♣ makes. So 2♣ for me. I was going to respond to MrAce's reply only I couldn't figure out if he was saying you should or shouldn't double :)

This hand is a great argument for transfers over interference of our one-openings. When we have a stopper ourselves, it does not matter who declares because the stopper is over the bidder. But if our stopper is Kx with opener then it has to be played by opener.

Here are some problems: - Sometimes everyone else is playing in 1N and you are playing in 2m or 2 of your major. This might win sometimes and might lose sometimes (depending if you can make more tricks than them). - Sometimes if you guess to pass 1NT, partner might have had a three-card raise with whatever strength you assign it, and everyone else will be playing 2M, which might win and might lose (depending if you can make the same number of tricks as them). So, you have to make more tricks than them when you end up in 2M on the seven-card fit, and you have to make the same number of tricks as them in 1NT as they make in 2M with their eight-card fit. That sounds tricky. Of course sometimes you can win when partner has a six card diamond or heart suit, and you bid 2♣, and they can sign off in 2♦ or 2♥, making more tricks than 1NT. But sometimes you can lose too (maybe you have a good fit and 1NT makes almost as many tricks). There is a way to solve this. Play a weak 1NT opening - now when you open 1M on a balanced hand, you will be strong enough to be happy hearing an invitational 2NT rebid by responder and will have no need to pass 1NT, or you might be extra strong and be able to make your own invitational 2NT rebid. If you are not strong, you will be unbalanced, and will be happy bidding a new suit and will end up in the same place as everyone else. Now you never need fear passing will miss out on your major suit fit (or responder's weak takeout), and you never need fear bidding will get you to 2NT going one off.

Shouldn't 2♣ then 3♥ show an unbalanced hand with five or more clubs and four or more hearts? So then, shouldn't East bid 4♣ over 3♥? Assuming West bid 2NT over 2♠ to show his balanced hand, now it can go something like (E) 3♣, (W) 3♥, (E) 3♠, (W) 4NT, (E) 2 keycards and trump queen* (W) 6♠. * I play that if one player shows two suits and the other is balanced, OR if a second suit has been supported, its king counts as a keycard. If you don't play this, then substitute in 1 keycard, then queen ask with yes as response. Anyway I think East should support clubs after partner definitely shows five, and I think West should only bid two suits when he actually has two suits.

2♦. Over 2NT I will bid 3♥ in case he has five. Over 2♠ (5-7 3-card raise or 2 cards) I will bid 3♠. Over 2♥ I will bid 3♥. These all show around 15-17[-] TP which I sort of have. If he passes 2♦ he probably has 5-8 HCP with 4-5 diamonds (and not two good spades) so it is porbably a good contract. There might be a very few hands he could pass 2♦ with that will make 4♠ but not enough for me to worry about.

This is what I do. I think it allows you to bid every hand you can have. After a transfer to a major, - If opener has three or more, he accepts. Now new suits are cues, and 3NT/4NT is RKCB. - If opener has two or fewer, he bids 3NT. A new suit is now natural, and step is RKCB for that suit, and 2NT 3♦/♥ 3NT 4NT is quantitative invite with a five card major. 4 of a suit is a slam try (hoping for mostly aces/kings rather than queens/jacks). Step is RKCB. 4NT after 4-minor shows a crap hand for slam. 4-minor could be forcing to slam or a try, but 4-major is only a try. 3♠ minor suit stayman OR 6-card major that wants to force to slam. 3NT shows a crap hand for slam in a minor (cards are mostly kings/queens/jacks in the majors). 4-minor shows an OK+ hand for slam. Then step RKCB for the minor. 4♠ is RKCB (setting hearts) and 4NT is RKCB (setting spades). Over 3NT response, 4♣ is RKCB for hearts and 4♦ is RKCB for spades, 4♥/4♠ show shortage and at least 5-5 in the minors and invite to slam (if they don't have kings/queens/jacks in shortage), and 4NT is seriously just pick a minor but I've given up on slam. Muppet stayman. 4♣/4♦ over 3♦/3♥ is a slam try in clubs/diamonds - proceed as over a 4♣/♦ immediate response. 3♠ over 3♥ proceeds same as 3♠ initial response. I bet you can't come up with a responding hand that will have trouble over a 2NT opening using the above :)

Alternative opening to 1♠ or 2♣ is 2NT. You'd probably like at least three card support opposite before you played a slam in spades so there is no real harm in pretending you only have five. Opening either 1♠ or 2♣ could leave you with bidding problems later.

It is only in American English that the double letters are dropped in some words. I did some reading and found out that the letters are always doubled (in both English and American English) when the preceding syllable is stressed (e.g. occurring, permitting), but that American English drops the doubled letters when the preceding syllable is not stressed (e.g. travelling, cancelling). Words look ugly to me when they are spelled the American way too (it annoys me when Microsoft Word autocorrects 'colour' to 'color' on the uni computers - we can't change the default language so I always add 'colour' to the dictionary) - just depends where you are from :)

In 1st/2nd seat, my 1♦ bid is reserved to show any hand with exactly four spades, so 2♦ shows 11-15 with diamonds. At first it was just a way to be able to bid these hands but we have gotten SO many good boards from this that it seems worthwhile playing just on its own. Here are two reasons: 1. At other tables they will open 1♦ and rebid 2♦, meanwhile the opponents have overcalled a major and are now playing in 2-major. Whereas at my table it goes 2♦-all pass. 2. It is way easier for partner to make a penalty double (compared to over a weak two) - 2♦ usually has some defence (a 3♦ opening shows a hand that REALLY belongs in diamonds). The combination of these two is: they can come in on a questionable hand then go for 800, or not come in and get a bottom when everyone else is in 2 or 3-major :) Our 1♣ opening, if natural, shows 14+ HCP so our 3♣ opening shows 9-13 HCP. We have had similar good results from that bid too.

North should bid 2♦ - four-four in the majors, or a good hand (~9+ HCP) that is not sure where to play. 2♠ should be saved for the medium hand (~9-11 HCP) that is pretty sure it wants to play in spades (i.e. five spades, or four spades and two or fewer hearts). South will then bid 2♥, and North will bid 2♠, showing the good hand that is not sure where to play, with four spades. South then knows game is on, and perhaps bids 3♦, over which North bids 3NT. If North did not have a diamond stopper, he could bid 3♥ over 3♦ (showing three) and if South had five he could raise to 4♥. If South did not have five hearts he will just have to bid 3NT and hope diamonds break, or that the partnership has a combined stopper. Personally, I would bid 1NT over a 1-opener with a balanced 16-18 HCP whether or not I have a stopper, and partner has a responsibility to check before bidding 3NT if he doesn't have a stopper himself. There is lots of room between 1NT and 3NT for that :)

Had a similar auction recently, I opened 3♦ and partner passed the takeout double with 54 in the majors, AQ of diamonds, and an 18-count. Opponent bid 4♦ with 3-3 in the majors and a balancedish 10 count, so he didn't have to guess which major to choose. Partner doubled 4♠ which went for 1400 :) That was obviously worse than 3♦ doubled plus 1.

During the pairs of the recent NZ nationals. Never having discussed it since it hardly ever comes up, the opponents open 2NT and I hold something like ♠AJ ♥KQ765 ♦KJ7 ♣AK3. I double, and other opp bids 3♣, over which partner bids 3♥. 4♠ should definitely be keycard since 3♠ looks forcing but not being 100% certain I opt for the practical bid of 6♥. Unfortunately it went three off as partner had six hearts and not much else :). Just wondering what a good defence is? It shouldn't be hard to come up with something extremely effective, since all the club and diamond bids are free to show something as well as the heart and spade bids, and you get double dipping (passing and bidding meaning something different to bidding immediately), rather like over multi 2♦. It might be a waste of time agreeing a defence since it hardly ever happens but it would be nice to know what we're doing.

It is just as much to do with how strong you are as your shape: - With maximum HCP for game (and not enough for slam) you will probably make as many tricks in NT as in your fit. And you may make more tricks if your fit breaks badly, since you have three other suits with plenty of high cards in them to make tricks with. You may even make 3NT when 4-major goes off due to the bad brek. - With minimum HCP for game (or even a few points light), and with a five or six-card suit to set up on the side, you are better off in your major suit fit. The fit will provide control in the side suits (where you have a lack of high cards) while you set up your five or six-card side suit for your tricks. - With minimum points for game (or a few light), and with neither of you having a nice five or six-card suit, your chances of making any game are low. But at least in 3NT you only need make nine tricks. So if a few suits break and a few finesses work you might be able to scrape those nine, but ten will need a bit more luck. So, with a 4333, count your points. Do you have 9-10 or 11? Look for the suit fit. With any luck partner will have a doubleton and a five card suit somewhere [edit: unless you don't open 1NT with a 5422] and 4-major will be an excellent contract, while 3NT needs a lot of luck. If partner also has a 4333 and is minimum, any game would have been dodgy anyway. Do you have 11 or 12-15? Bid 3NT. Even if you have a 4-4 fit it may break badly and 3NT will be a much easier contract for your partner to play.

I don't understand its problem with playing in 2♣. It's not like it's void or anything! I wouldn't have thought Gib would ever be allowed to bid 3-card suit except maybe after a takeout double at the one-level? Looking forward to the explanation for this one!

Because 4♥ would be michaels. In all my regular partnerships, over a major-suit transfer, double is takeout and 2 of their suit is michaels. If there were some experts here who did the same thing, but not over a 4♦/♥ transfer, then I would be interested to read their opinions why it is a bad idea.

Is this a similar joke to the "don't bid beyound(sic) RKC" thread? I followed that for a while hoping someone would explain the joke but they never did :(

I found the same thing in a recent robot tournament, I held something like ♠3 ♥AKQJT9832 ♦J ♣AK, hovered over 4NT and it had no meaning. Tried 2♣, got 2NT response and turned out 4♣ was Gerber, so it worked out for the better. But yeah, it should be too hard to go through all opening bids and assign them a meaning - there are only a limited number of them. Bids in the 3rd or 4th rounds I can understand being undefined, since there are thousands(?) of possible auctions.

You can rebid 4♥ to show the void/singleton ace & club control, then after partner bids 4♠, bid 4NT keycard, partner should be smart enough to exclude the ♥A from his number of keycards if he has it. (Pard said nothing new with the 4♠ bid, so if we can keycard now we could have keycarded before, so the 4♥ bid must have been for a purpose and excluding ♥A from pard's # keycards must be it). If partner has the ace of hearts he might keycard himself (now that he's heard we have club control), if he doesn't have it and still chooses to keycard, hopefully he assumes we have a void not a singleton ace and counts the total keycards correctly. lalldonn, does 4♥ really not show first-round control in hearts? What are the rules defining when you show a control twice that it might not have first-round control? By the way why is this in the rulings forum? Sounds like it will be an interesting story!