MFA

3NT. I like my chances. Partner will have a few useful values more often than not.

5♣. Partner is probably 6-5 and he should be allowed to show his suits without getting hanged. So a slamtry from me should show better values than this.

My partner doesn't have a license to think me out of a game. Period. If he tanks, he bids. Games are bread and butter, and a slow, delicate feinschmecker evaluation to stay low I can use to nothing, if I'm still there with a possible raise. If my Bergen could contain a gamegoing, but slamunsuitable, hand (which is OK for me) then this sequence would fall under the above considerations. Slams are a different question. Some of these evaluations are much more difficult (individual and unusual), so if a tank keeps me out on a rare occasion, I'll live with it.

1. I think that pass to 4♠ is just about unthinkable and not a LA. 2. Can't judge this one with so scarce information.

Imps / vul vs not. ♠ 4 ♥ K7543 ♦ A2 ♣ AQ742 (1♠) - pass - (1NT) - ?? 1NT was acol style 6-9.

In general I find situations like this hard to judge: ♠ AQ9 ♥ AK743 ♦ A5 ♣ AK8 Imps/none. 2nd seat. (3♦) - X - (pass) - 3♥ (pass) - 4♦ - (pass) - 4♥ (pass) - ? 4♦ was a strong raise to 4♥. What now?

I meant "But 4♠ over 4♥ would also be ugly", of course.

Double. I pass 4♠, raise 4♦, and bid 5♦ over 4♥. The last one is very ugly. But 4♠ over 4♦ would also be ugly :angry:.

6-10. No reason to pose idealistic requirements for this bid when awkward hands come up all the time where one responds 1NT anyway. Bidding 2m on four small is for instance often not very appetizing. And not to speak of a 3 card suit at the 2-level.

So what would 2♠ have meant, then, after you made a 2♦ call? I play that as a suprising forwardgoing move, and I don't know anybody offhand who doesn't. Partner has a clear and obvious way to invite game. Why would he use 2NT, if it meant the same thing but a lot less clear? I think you're right, X followed by 2♥ makes more sense with 5-5. Maybe he's 4-6. Maybe he's used to using X followed by 2♥ as a powerhouse and he's forgotten that as a passed hand he doesn't need the powerhouse bid any more. But I think 2NT can't be a diamond bid. Even if partner woke up and realized that he had an opening count and more, 2♠ is just too obvious to use 2NT for the same sort of hand. Whatever, I'm not about to discuss this silly problem forever. My interpretation is a strong diamond raise (at least 5) with a spade card, since that is the only hand I can think of that I would actually want to bid this way. 2♠ would then typically show a small singleton or a void. Feel free to disagree.

Not possible- he's a passed hand. Plzzz.... :) For me this is not sensible. He could bid 2♥ now with 5-5. If he is 5♥-6♣ maybe the initial double needs inspection. When a limited hand suddenly finds power to make a very surprising forwardgoing move, my initial thought would always be that he was encouraged by my bid. So here I would expect a strong fit for diamonds.

Aha, Grue the Almighty, even able to solve his partner's problems and bid his hands for him. A great player indeed. <_<

I think it's normal for a GF responding hand with 5+♣ & 4♠ to bid 2♣ and then later spades. Only if clubs are not really worth mentioning, I would depart from this. Your example hand contains a heart void, and one would like to show that at some point. Wonder what the difference is between 3♥ followed by 4♥, and 4♥ (void) directly after 2♣. Nobody has yet mentioned the possibility of bidding 4♣ over 3♠. Since no "minorwood" or something has been agreed this is just a waiting bid of some sort. Among other possible hand types, this could clearly be bid on a minimum hand without a diamond control. So if 4♠ were just a cuebid, it should show extras too.

I have been playing something complicated that never seems to come up :). 3♥: Major length ask. This is used if interested in a major suit contract or just the major suit distribution. Responses: 3♠= short spades, "long" hearts 3NT = short hearts, "long" spades 4m = 6511's Now 4M is to play, 4m is keycard for that suit with 1st step=void, rest= 0,1-Q,1+Q,2-Q,2+Q. After "void" one can ask again with the cheapest bid. 3♠: Inv+ in a minor. Responses: 3NT=min strongest ♣ 4♣=min strongest ♦ 4♦=max On these 4M is keycard for the corresponding suit, 4♥ for ♣, 4♠ for ♦. 4m is just sign-off.

Playing with a teammate in my first Danish pairs championship, we had agreed to play Viking club (which we both played with our regular partners). The bidding went: (pass)-pass-(pass)-1♣ strong (pass)-2♦-(pass)-2♥ relay asking (X)-pass We had agreed that pass was 1st step, that is a normal 2♠ bid showing 5♦-4♠. But I was confused. Actually I wanted to play 2♥XX but suddenly I was afraid that XX was not to play (which of course it was)... What to do? :huh: Then I saw the solution! It was matchpoints and redoubling didn't seem crucial. Slam was far away and a doubled partscore should be fine. So I passed 2♥X. :) When I made 8 tricks (in spite of a somewhat surprising 6card ♥ suit to my left), but :) when +470 was translated into an icecold zero with the rather lucky 12 tricks in 4♠ that were taken at ALL the other 19 tables for +480.

I'm not sure "good" is the right word to describe that kind of day. It would definitely require some adjective though! lol :huh:

Personally, I agree with this. Do you have an opinion about if 4♠ shows, denies or is unclear about a diamond control?

Huh? :huh:

Who is partner? :) I would expect some super-duper raise of diamonds with a spade card, presumably the A.

Strangely, there were two quite similar problems last night. Both times it went 4♠-X-pass-? 1. NV vs VUL A, Qx, QJT9xxxx, xx 2. NV vs NV Ax, KJT9xxx, Qx, xx :)

Right, 3♥ must be a splinter. Responder could have 4♠ (with a GF hand), as can opener. The problem seems to be how much focus (if any?) should be made on getting out of clubs and in to a 4-4 ♠-fit. It's matchpoints if that makes a difference. Does 3♠ always show 4? Or could it be first step towards a club slam (a cuebid)? Does 4♠ show 4? Does it deny a ♦-control? A ♥-void (4054)? If responder keycards with 4NT, are clubs or spades trumps? Any thoughts anybody :) ?

Yes I would make a slam try in clubs.

I would lead a heart with spade a close second.

The point of doubling is surely to pass 3M. If I were about to raise that, it would be clear to bid 4♦ in the first place.

Sure I overcall. Wait a little with the table result so we have time to answer :).