bid_em_up

I don't think West should have shown the spade K at all. But, since we now know he has it, why did he lead a heart from a 6-3-0-4 holding? Unless the club holding was Qxxx and he didnt want to lead from it either. I think you should play for the drop.

At MP, pass. Making 4 will probably be a good result anyway. At IMP, 4H. There is no "in between" on this hand, imo. If you bid 3C, you effectively prevent LHO from making a helpful club lead, should it be his natural lead on this hand OR when he has a spade holding that is unattractive to lead from (such as AJxx) and might have chosen a club instead. The options really are either pass or 4H, and since its IMP's, I'll take a shot at game.

I know this hand. :unsure: I would simply bid 3H also. This was my hand as his partner. This is like the 3rd board we had played together, ever. [hv=d=e&v=e&s=skhkq9632da63c654]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] I could raise 3H to 4. I chose not to based on the 3-3-4-3 distribution and the 3H rebid. The only reason you can make four is because you can get an unlikely pitch on the spade A. Wouldn't you also bid 2H on x KQxxxx Axx xxx? But now 4H has no valid play. Of course, the field is in 4H making on these hands. Besides, you did well to make 5. :P (Don't ask how, LOL).

I much prefer to play against established pairs instead of random opponents. One of my partners has gotten to the point where he refuses to play any longer vs. random opps. When he has advertised for "established pairs only" in the past, invariably he would get one player without partner attempting to sit. He would let them sit, only to ask who their partner was, and upon being told they didnt have one (or that they could not find one), they were politely asked to leave the table. Unfortunately, not everyone chose to do so willingly. I think this could be a good solution for those pairs looking to play established pairs. Or at least, its a good start.

I guess it's a matter of perspective, Phil. To me, the "cause" of the disaster (3S x'd+1) is precipitated by North's erroneous double. Without the double, South can't go wrong. :) Now, what is the purpose of North's double? He cannot expect South to bid 3N when holding AKx in opponents 9+ card fit. He does not have support for either minor. He will not sit for 4 of a minor when South bids it. He will bid 4H. If he is going to pull whatever South bids to 4H, why not just bid it now? In this seat, the X by North should be takeout, yet the bidding to this point and South's spade holding will indicate to South that it simply cannot be takeout. It must be penalty oriented. So North's options really were either bid 3N or 4H. But double could never be correct on this holding.....and it could not be correct unless specifically intended as penalty, imo. If he intended it as penalty, then South needs to respect that and leave it in. After further consideration, I'm not so sure North doesn't deserve more of the blame than I (and others) have initially assigned to him. I have almost convinced myself that he shares equally in the blame due to the X of 3S (up from 25% originally).

Thanks. DISCLAIMER: It was not my intent to create a long drawn out debate on the merits of the double. Personally, I'm not sure whether I agree or disagree with it, I can see merits for either side. But, I respect the fact that you probably have valid reasons for doing so and wanted to hear what they were. Thanks again. EDIT: (Disclaimer added)

If the diamond finesse fails to West, you are immediately down as he cashes the rest of his clubs.

I guess the question is, what does X followed by 4C over partner's 3S show in your methods?

Justin, I would like to hear your thoughts on why you will always X with this hand, if you don't mind. Is it specifically done in an effort to get partner to find some other lead other than the expected club lead (which is most likely his normal lead)? Is it done on the basis that RHO is likely to have only 9-10 hcp which means partner may have an entry to lead your suit a second time (assuming he found the right suit the first time)? Does the X have any specific meaning as regarding which major suit partner should lead?

A cuebid. And if you later bid 5S, that's a cuebid. I suppose by 6S partner would get the message. Saying this is natural is making meanings for bids up to fit your hand (and your spades are not nearly good enough for this even if it was natural, why do you want to play in spades after they've bid a weak 2?). Cause they psyched :P And you know this, how? After the fact? When you see all the cards? And if they havent psyched? Then what? Do you really want to play 4S knowing in advance that LHO has A10976x? Really, if they have psyched, good for them. It worked. Oh well. If they haven't (and you have no reason to believe otherwise), considering anything other than pass is, ummm, optimistic. Yea, thats the word I was looking for.

While South's pass is clearly absurd, I will give North 25% of the blame for his X. He should realize on the auction that South can hold no more than 1 spade, and yet he failed to double 2H or raise hearts. South is broke, and is liable to have no real heart fit. Even if he does have 3 hearts, the hearts will be breaking poorly after the 2H call (as they are in this case). North's hand looks strong, but has very little real defense given that he will not be taking more than 1 heart trick (if that). It also cannot stand to play a 5-2 minor fit. North can bid 3N. If he absolutely can't stand to pass, he has just enough playing strength for 4H not to be a total disaster if he bids it. Double is out of the question as far as I am concerned. (I would give West 25% of the blame for not bidding 4S, if I could.) :P

Phil, While I certainly appreciate your situation, there are a couple of things to consider that aren't clear in your post. You say that it "appears" to hurt him to open his eyes. An animal that is in pain will let you know. Does he growl at you now when he never did before? Does he howl or grunt unexpectedly? Does he snap/bite if you reach towards him unexpectedly? I ask only because it may be that he appears to be in pain to you, because he isn't his normal self. But he may or may not be in physical pain, or it could be that he just isn't feeling well. From your description, it doesn't sound as if your vet has done much for him. A quick search of the internet reveals that Corgie's are prone to some hereditary eye diseases. One type is listed as progressive retinal atrophy in which the retinas become cloudy and eventually lead to blindness. I suppose there are others. From what little I read, there is no treatment (surgery) available for this. This type of disease is not supposed to be painful according to the information I found, as long as the animal remains in a familiar environment, he should be ok. I would look for a veterinary ophthalmologist (eye doctor for animals) in your area and have him evaluated. Or call a local animal hospital and ask them if they can recommend a vet who specializes in eye treatment. It has been my experience that animals have ways of letting you know when it's their time to go. As hard as it is to put any animal to sleep, when the time is right, you will "know". If he is indeed "suffering', you will be aware of it, and you will know that it is time. However, I would not equate being uncomfortable with suffering. No matter what, it is never an easy decision. Even when the time is right.

Actually there is. If it is an ACBL sanctioned tourny, it is not a BBO club game. It has to abide by the ACBL tournament charts. Since it is not a restricted game (0-20 mp, making it a limited convention game), and it is not sectionally rated or higher, the GCC applies. Not quite... 1. As I understand matters, BBO's ACBL franchise is equivalent to the one's held by clubs. The regulatory structure that is used for regionals, sectionals, and the like doesn't really apply. 2. I can point to numerous examples where local districts have ammended the ACBL's convention charts to sanction or ban different pet treatments. District 25 has exceptions to the GCC that permit players to use SUCTION over the opponent's NT openings. Other districts have allowed the Kaplan inversion and a bunch of other stuff. I think that the critical issue is consistency between the way the game is advertised and the way the rules are enforced. Richard, To me, the BBO games are a sanctioned tournament. For that tournament, the current CoC is that the GCC is in effect. That means, the GCC as written, not modified. Now, we can certainly agree that this is modifiable, either by a club or a local district. However, in these cases, the club/district usually will hold some sort of internal referendum amongst its membership asking whether or not these methods should/should not be allowable. At the very least, the elected governing district board will take a vote amongst themselves, after having heard input from various members on the subject. Or there is a club manager that someone can ask "Can we play this", and the manager can say yes, no or maybe. However, if they say yes, it is playable by all members of that club. If they say maybe, they usually intend to take a poll of other members prior to giving a definitive answer. And if they choose to make such allowances for these methods, they must be published as part of the CoC for that particular club or district games/tournaments. The ACBL tournaments on BBO have no such governing body, nor a means of taking such a referendum. I, for one, dont think that it is acceptable for any one person to be modifying the structure of the GCC to accomodate any particular method or pair, without being able to receive input from the overall "membership". That said, I would much rather see the CoC changed to Mid-Chart, which would solve this problem, along with multi not being allowed, but could lead to other problems that I am unaware of. still jmoo.

Actually there is. If it is an ACBL sanctioned tourny, it is not a BBO club game. It has to abide by the ACBL tournament charts. Since it is not a restricted game (0-20 mp, making it a limited convention game), and it is not sectionally rated or higher, the GCC applies. and Not sure what you are trying to say. The GCC says "Unless specifically allowed, methods are disallowed". Under opening bids, a transfer preempt is only allowed at the 4 level. "OPENING FOUR-LEVEL BID transferring to a known suit.". Under Mid-Chart tournies, transfer preempts are specifically allowed by #7: "7. A transfer opening bid at the two-level or higher showing a weak bid in the suit being transferred to or a type or types of strong hand." And even in this case, the pair using this method must prealert the method, and provide an approved written defense. Since the ACBL tournies are not Mid-Chart rated, these methods should not be allowable, imo. And if notified that the pair is playing these methods, the directors should inform them that they are not allowable. jmoo.

Question 1: 4♠ Question 2: I should have bid 4♠ the first time. I have a second chance now. 4♠.

I wouldn't worry too much about what someone who bids 3N on these cards said. If LHO has 7 clubs, there are legitimate lines of play. There are also a couple of lines if he only has 6 clubs as long as he holds the diamond K as well. If LHO has only 6 clubs and he does not hold the diamond K, it would have to be stiff in RHO's hand in order to make. Almost all of these lines require playing a spade at trick 2, I think. But I havent looked closely at it, so could be wrong.

I think I need to know what LHO does next after winning the club A (and we unblock the K) before I can reasonably "plan the play from here". I would expect him to cash the spade K and exit with a diamond, but stranger things have happened. Of course, I would expect RHO to hold the diamond K, since he should have shifted to a diamond, not a club at trick three if he is not holding the diamond K. The club Ace wasnt going anywhere.

never mind, i see why now.

On a high spade lead, can't declarer score 6 hearts, 2 diamonds, 1 spade and 1 club for 10 tricks?

You rejected 8 times but then you were upset because he wouldn't let you play? Did I read that right?

Pass is always an option. This time it's a good one. Good reasons for pass: 1) No real fit for partner. 2) Ratty suit. 3) Weak hand. 4) Partner may not have diamond fit. 5) Bidding will encourage partner (Do you really want partner bidding 3N?) 6) Partner may have 6+ spades and can bid 2S if LHO passes. 7) If it is our hand, partner will reopen with a double or bid again. 8) The 3 small hearts are a discouraging factor. Good reasons for 3D: 1) Lead directional. I cant think of any others. :) Pass. Adding the diamond Q still isn't enough.

Reverses are forcing because they imply extra values, "force" you to take preference to partners original suit at a higher level, and (assuming you have the 5+ hcp normally required for a response at the one level) there should be some play for game. Of course, this does not always hold true. Hand one, I pass 2H. It is probably your last chance to get out for a positive score. Hand two, I rebid 2N. I want to hear if partner breaks the relay to 3C. I will bid 3♥ over 3♣ if he does not break the relay. This must be forcing with only 3 hearts and no more than two diamonds (and most likely, 5 spades). Why? With a forcing hand and 3 diamonds, you could simply bid 3D over 2H. So you have no more than 2 diamonds. With 4 hearts, you could have raised 2H to 3H/4H. So you have no more than 5 red cards. With 3 hearts and bad hand, you would have passed two hearts (as in hand one).

This is why people play leb after reverses. When playing this, any bid after a reverse other than 2N (which forces 3C) is 100% forcing. examples; 1♦-1♠-2♥-3♣ still 4SF. 1♦-1♠-2♥-3♦ agrees diamonds and game forcing (no 2N relay). 1♦-1♠-2♥-3♥ agrees hearts, better than minimum hand (should have some slam interest) 1♦-1♠-2♥-4♥ good heart fit, no slam interest. 1♦-1♠-2♥-2NT-3♣ (forced by 2N)-3♦ weak hand, can be doubleton diamond. It's open to debate whether or not the sequence: 1♦-1♠-2♥-2♠ is forcing or not. Most will say that it has to be. However, if you dont play weak jump shifts (which I don't), you can't bid 1♦-2♠ on a weak hand with long spades. The solution was to make this sequence non-forcing.

You can also mark the ID of the club member sending the message as an enemy then disable chat from enemies. This was how I finally solved the problem. Not the best solution in the world, but better than nothing.

Yes, he is. I have been told that he even plays here (and supposedly have played against him on occasion).