♠AK7532 ♥T9 ♦A ♣Q753 None Vuln, MP South deals and opens 2♠, no alert. Auction proceeds: 2♠ - p - p - 5♦ 5♠ - X - AP Result: 5♠=, +650 East calls the TD after the hand and complains about the 2♠ bid, stating that there was no alert, and CC is marked as weak, and that if he'd known it could be an intermediate hand, he would pass out 2♠. (E has a 9 count with 7 not-very good diamonds and a spade void). What's your ruling? Does it change if there is a history found of the player opening "weak" 2's on holdings like AK AJ, etc, several times over a year?