Kalvan14

Why should this hand be better than the one my pard had? You are in any case committed to play clubs (I'd really like to see a 5♦ coming up, shadows of B/L :rolleyes: ). If it might have been even a 0-1-5-7, I can only shudder. We play reasonably aggreessive pre-empts, no belt-and-suspenders type: this I said. 3♣ would be a gross understatement for his hand, and 4♣ one of those wishy-washy bids which just push oppos to game. Btw, I'd like to know what is a definition of "normal pre-empt" for the general case, and for a specific auction 1M-5m. Pls. refrain from explaining the rule of 2 & 3.

I'go for hidden text; the hand is quite simple, though: [HIDDEN]finesse the ♥Q; if it looses to the K, the diamonds can be guarded just with LHO.[HIDDEN]

4♠, thanks. For the 1♠-party: what are you going to bid after 1♠-(P)-1N? And after 1♠-(X)-1N? My losers are ok for the vulnerability; I'd love to hold the ♠J too, but maybe pard will have it singleton ;)

Pre-empts with belt and suspenders are not our style. Which might be right or wrong: one has to judge over a long run, not on the single hand. The important thing is being consistent. Therefore, while for you the question is btween 6 and 7, for me is between 5 and 6, with a bias for 5.

Very well said :)

I agree that S should show his 2nd suit (and would not promise extras), since he is not changing level. The classic auction is: 1♠-(P)-2m-(2♥). Here 3 om would show extras, since opener is changing level.

Phil, Q♠ as lead, and shif to ♦ (declarer plays low). Now spade and spade again. Ruff in dummy with J♥ (I expect that RHO does not overruff), the A, K and x in trumps. Win the diamond return, draw last trump and finesse in clubs: 4 hearts + 4 clubs + A♦= 9 tricks.

Interesting topic. I play forcing passes as Fred does, except in the case under discussion here. I can see the advantages (and the possible disadvantages too); I'll have to think a bit more on this sequence (which is not really too common); however, my first reaction would be to play double without defense, if pass is forcing (and should promise at least one defensive trick).

Pard had x Axxxx T9xx 87x. 5♠X is 2 down, on a hearts lead. 5♣ can be made only on a hearts or clubs lead. Otherwise the 9x in clubs denies you the 2nd entry to dummy. The 1♣ opener had: AKQxx KQTx Kxx x, and could have gone for a much worse results. Overall, I think that this validates the advantages of bidding 5♣ directly.

at fav vulnerability, I'll go for 5♦: let the oppos decide which is the contract they want to play, but at 5-level.

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=saq975hkt842dktc5]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1S-(P)-2C*-(3D)**-?? (*): GF (**): weak [/hv] Are you showing your 2nd suit or passing (FP)?

My preference is for starting with 2♣. While the hand is not up to the value of a 2/1 GF reply, the playing values of a 6-5 are huge. If (mistakenly, IMHO) the first bid is 1♠, then you can only rebid 2N (which is a fair description of values, and should be likely to be with 5 clubs). BTW, I play the sequence 1♥-2♣*-2♦-2♠ as 4th suit (but partner raises with 4 cards). 3♠ would be a splinter, agreeing diamonds; therefore I'd bid 2♠-any-3♠ to show a 6-5 (*): GF

There is a communication problem between the 2 hands. You can play A♥, spade ruff, K♥, spade ruff, A♣, spade ruff with the J♦, and now you are there. Finesse in diamonds or playing for the drop? Whichever you choose, it is far less than 50% (you cannot play for the drop of a singleton Q with RHO, and you loose in any case with diamonds 4-0). This is the best chance you have (and requires hearts not worse than 5-2, spades not worse than 7-3, and at best a guess in diamonds). Btw, 1440 (6NT=) means that either there is a mistake in the defense (LHO takes immediately the ♠A, or that you get right the situations in both minors (but then you would score 1470).

Very well said. I strongly suspect that there is no heart stopper.

I personally wouldn't as I have forced them to the 5 level -- and I prefer NOT to bid a prempt hand a second time :rolleyes: I'm not going to bid 6♣, :D . OTOH, I doubled (and this should certainly be a Lightner double)

My partner and I play that 4S shows a strong hand and creates a force. Vulnerability does not come into the equation for us. I have no strong convictions that this is the right way to play. As far as I can tell, we play fewer high-level sequences as forcing than most pairs (in America at least). Fred Gitelman Bridge Base Inc. www.bridgebase.com Does it mean that a pass over 5♦ would be forcing? Are you playing that X denies defense?

[hv=d=w&v=n&n=s32hakj7dt95ckj65&w=sakjt76h9dkq8cqt2&e=sq4hq643d7432c743&s=s985ht852daj6ca98]399|300|Scoring: MP (1S)-X-(P)-2H-(2S)-P-(P)-X-(P)-3H-(P)-P-(3S)-P-(P)-X- allP[/hv] I doubled again (and this is clearly an action double): at MP, it pays to be somehow aggressive. As I expected, W did not have her bid, but was simply in love with her spades. Pard was minimum and balanced: again the bidding had shown (or at least hinted) to this. The contract was set by 2 tricks, which means that there was some breathing space, and we were not really hanging from a cliff with our nails. 3♥ makes, btw.

Agree with most of the posters. The real alternatives are pass, and 5C. Any intermediat number of clubs would not be helpful, just warn oppos about bad splits without preempting much (and I would never ever introduce the diamonds suit in teh auction: the disparity between the minors is too big). At the table I choose 5C, and the auction went on: (P)-P-(1♣)-5♣-(P)-P-(X)-P-5♠-P-(P)-? Do you take any further action?

IMO, no forcing pass situation has been created. N has bid 4♠, admittedly r vs w, but it would not be different if he had opened 4♠. S has just limited his hand by passing.

6♦ all the time. 7♦ is just a big swing. Don't understand why N felt the need to JS to 4♦. Over 3♦ (which might be 4 cards), 4♠ is a splinter, with obvious fit. At this stage N would need to make sure of: K & Q in clubs, Q of diamonds and chicane in spade. I doubt all of them can be made sure of. 6 ♦ is the only practical contract.

I agree: 3♣ is not forcing. OTOH, S had already passed. Can he have much more than this? On the 3rd hand ( :blink: ) S would have been much wiser to bid 1♠. It would have resulted in a much smoother bidding.

1. 1NT. There is really no good bid here. I started the auction ready to reverse in hearts, but LHO's overcall has ruined my lil ploy. Now the risk is finding pard with 5 spades and 4 diamonds. I really do prefer downgrading my hand a bit but avoiding stronger actions in a likely misfit situation. 2. 4D (certainly forcing). Hope pard can cue-bid spades. 3. Pass, and lead AD. I should get at least 1 down. 4C can be awkward if pard's balancing double is a bit off shape. 4. 3D: I like Phil's reasoning

[hv=d=w&v=n&s=s65hdaj97cakqjt32]133|100|Scoring: MP (P)-P-(1C*)- ? Not really Precision, but showing 16/+ unabal or 17/+ bal[/hv] Just for once you've a serious overcall to make :P

Ok, you double and the bidding goes: (1S)-X-(P)-2H-(2S)-P-(P)-X-(P)-3H-(P)-P-(3S)-P-(P)-? Apparently, LHO found a couple of spades on the floor :P BTW, we play very aggressive t/o doubles with the right shape, but it is pretty unusual to double 1♠ without 4 cards in hearts and without a clear rebidding. Therefore, I would assume that pard is 99% with 4 hearts. 2nd BTW :lol: : the game is MP - not IMP. I ticked the wrong line.

Probably bidding 2♦, and then the 5cM (forcing). It is an interesting approach, though