
Kalvan14
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Everything posted by Kalvan14
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The only reason to double (I agree it can be only for penalty) is to bar pard from competing in 4♣
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1. I would not psyche: 3♦ is good enough. 2. Never ever. We hold the majority of the points. 3. Maybe. I'd like better something like 3♦, if it is forcing (or at least a game try). If my LHO holds length/strength in diamonds he might be reluctant to bid. 3N is a bit smelly (and oppos have something like 27-28 points, so a double is quite likely). Possibly, the best psyches come when pard opens 1m, and you bid 1♠ on 2 cards, hoping to be in misfit. My experience is that psyches can work, but must be subtle, and very rarely used. There was that British guy (forgot the name) in the 1950s who was notorious for opening 1♠ in psyche. It was another age, and I'm sure that he had very good judgment: just the notoriety, however, made psyches unlikely to succeed (unless you went for a double bluff; or a triple one :P )
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another MP decision
Kalvan14 replied to mike777's topic in Intermediate and Advanced Bridge Discussion
IMO, Frances is making good sense with her posts. Just for this time, count me in the coop with the chicken: I'll defend 1♠ -
1NT is the most reasonable bid. I anticipate that the major problem of this hand will be that opener does not make a natural re-bid
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Your partner opens 1 Diamond...
Kalvan14 replied to badderzboy's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
Well 3♣ would certainly be GF. Over 2♠, I also play a Lebensohl 2NT, which helps to show sub-standard first bids (but mostly is useful to confirm GF auctions when I'm not sub-standard: 1♦-1♥-2♠-3any) -
Pard's hand: A AKJxxx Axx Qxx I do believe that this would be best treated with a 3♣ rebid (GF - normally showing a real suit). The bidding would be: 1♥-1N-3♣-3♥(slam interest)-3♠-4♣-4♦-4N-6♥ The slam requires diamonds 3-2, and K♣ in E (or no club lead): difficult to say if a club lead is likely or not, since it depends on the bidding and on E having other alternatives for the opening lead. At worst is 34%, at best 68%: IMO, assessing it at 50% would be fair. At my table I passed, after a long suffering (4♥+2 after a spade lead). At the other table, oppos reached 6 (made; K♣ is with E, and diamonds break), after opening 1♣ (strong). It is a marginal slam, and I am not too much upset by not having called it. Still, I told partner that I did not agree with the 4♥ rebid.
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No.. they are playing 3♦ as short diamond. Not clear yet if can be void or just stiff.... Maybe I was unclear: 3m would be GF, normally with 4/+ cards (but can be 3 at a pinch)
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system is 2/1 1M-1NT-2any-3M: 10-12 balanced, 3 trumps 2C is pretty classic (no 8-tricks-in-a-major) we play namyats no autosplinter, but he might bid 2S or 3m 100% forcing (2S would not be GF, 3m would) This system really sucks, unless playing very sound in first and second seat. Thanks for the constructive comment, but it does not really address my question
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A pass, even if game is quite possible. Pard will introduce a 6-card hert suit even without a very strong hand; IMHO, with good hearts he'll be reluctant to double, since it might come back to him at 3♠, without any additional info.
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23 pts game or is it worth stopping in 2nt ? IMPS
Kalvan14 replied to benlessard's topic in Expert-Class Bridge
You beat me to the punch: I'm of the same opinion. If it has to play game, the 1st one would be possibly better in 4M, on a Moysian fit. -
Even with a light opener, the good concentration in the red suits and the singleton club are worth a game force. If either of the diamonds honors had been in spades, I'd go for 1 ♠ bid.
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system is 2/1 1M-1NT-2any-3M: 10-12 balanced, 3 trumps 2C is pretty classic (no 8-tricks-in-a-major) we play namyats no autosplinter, but he might bid 2S or 3m 100% forcing (2S would not be GF, 3m would)
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I would have doubled for t/o on the 1st round, but then I would have not Xed 3♠ (it would be close, but spades are not good enough). I disagree with the double of 3NT as a final confirmation of a spades lead: wouldn't it be overkill? Give him AQT9x in spades (and maybe Q intead of king in clubs) and he cannot be sure 3 NT is not making. Someone might argue that the first t/o double denied very good spades. I suppose it's a matter of style and agreement. IMHO, with Qx or Jx in spades and Qxxx in hearts, I'd be likely to lead the spade honor even without the double.
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[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sj8xhq8xdktxxxcax]133|100|Scoring: IMP 1H-1NT*-4H-? *: 1-round forcing[/hv] You bid 1NT, and are going to bid 3♥ at the second round. However, the bidding comes back with 4♥. What are you going to do?
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I would double twice on Frances' hand. 4NT is a bit committing: on the posted hand, you'll play 5♦+1 (cannot believe you bid slam); on a slightly different hand it might turn a certain plus into a minus. Pre-empts are used to make life difficult for opponents, and reasonably often they are successful. IMHO, irrespective of the result on this hand, opening 2♠ first hand (even at fav vuln) with a moth-eaten 5-3-3-2 is not a winning tactic in the long run.
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If partner signals 2 or 4 clubs after A♥ and K♣, it becomes a guess. 6-1 in hearts should be less likely than 4-1 in clubs, for what is worth in this hand, where declarer holds an 8-card suit. If (as I gather from your post) you play reverse count, and with a doubleton or 4 cards partner leads the smallest, there is no way to read his actual holding. As far as the structure of answers after a Gambling 3NT, I'll never go for a complicated convention for a hand which has a very low frequency. As a matter of fact, I do not even play Gambling 3NT in my established partnerships.
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With all the respect that I have for both ML and MM, I do prefer a t/o double with this hand: with a double fit (5-3 in spades and 4-4 in hearts, I prefer playing hearts). However, it's obvious that if pard bids clubs, that will be the strain. Over 3♦, 3♠ (in any case GF) is more than enough (also because there is a chance that partner has ♥/♣).
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Run or describe ?
Kalvan14 replied to AthosINT's topic in General Bridge Discussion (not BBO-specific)
4♠. No search for a miracle slam, no willingness to allow oppos to introduce hearts at 4-level. -
Declarer played the ♣J over my partner's T. My ♣8 is master, and it does not cost anything to play it.
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Usually, advancer would have bid 4♦, which caters for all possible suits hold by the 3NTer. I take the ♥A, and play the ♣K, to see a count in the suit. A void should be less likely than a singleton (but then I've never seen anyone bidding 3NT with 8 solid spades)
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After 1♠-2♣-2♦-2♠, opener should pattern his hand: 2NT: 5-4-2-2 or 5-3-4-1 (can have extras - promises a heart stopper) 3C: Hx (or xxx) without heart stopper 3D: 5 diamonds 3H: 5-3-4-1, shows extras 3S: slam try 3NT: minimum 5-3-4-1, good heart holding (proposes to play) 4C: 5-1-4-3 (Hxx in clubs, minimum) 4D: extras, 5-5 in S/D, singleton club 4H: extras, 5-5 S/D, singleton heart 4S: minimum hand, concentration in S/D (if there is a singleton, it is in clubs) Note: with Hxx in clubs and non-minimum hand, opener raises clubs at 2nd round; with 4 cards in clubs and minimum hand, 3♦/♥ show a shortness.
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4H I could hardly have a worse hand. Assuming 2nt was some version of Jacoby. Assuming 3D showed shortness. On the basis of Mike's assumptions, I'd propose 3NT. Pard knows I've a fit in hearts, now let him know that I've wasted values in diamonds. Obviously, this would not be possible since 3NT would be interpreted as Serious 3N, am I right? 4♥, then (which is the reason for which I don't like Serious 3N).
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One of the best features in 2/1 was the ease in finding fits at 2-level after an immediate GF. If opener starts to relay rather than bidding suits, this advantage goes away. If bidding goes 1♠-2♣-2♦, advancer (holding Kx xxx Qxx AKJxx) cannot bid either 2♠ or 2NT. 3♣ is a matter of partnership agreement (for me, 3♣ shows a semi-autonomous suit)). 3♦ would be a stronger hand and almost certainly slam try. 2♥ (4th SF) is the only reasonable bid (I'd bid 2♥ even with Kx xx Qxxx AKJxx: 3NT might be the best contract, and an immediate 3♦ would require a better hand). Note: with a 5-3-3-2 or similar distribution, opener rebids 2♠, which does not promise anything (it just denies any 4 cards below spades, and denies also a non-minimum hand with club fit).
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3♠: pard does not have 5 spades 3NT: where are my tricks coming from? 4♦: possibly my best contract pass: oppos are quite likely to be 1 or 2 down in 3♥X. Overall, and without a lot of confidence, I pass.
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3 spades at least, but might be 4 (with a good club suit and a GF hand, bidding must start with 1♠-2♣). 1♥-2♣-2♦-2♠: 2♠ is 4th suit (2 reasons: opener can still have 4 spades in 4-5-4-0; advancer does not bid 2NT without a spade stopper). Opener raises spades with 4 cards, bids 2N with a stopper, or in any case better describes his hand. Priority is to clarify the spades situation, but with a good red 5-5 he might prefer to rebid 3♦ in any case.