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Not universal (other than 3h is forcing), but generally accepted default agreements. You can define 3S in this auction a number of ways, but if it were undiscussed, it ought to show a stop. You could also use it as a slam try or a choice of games. Mike

If 2S doesn't show a minimum (up to a nice 15), then what do you do with a hand like: AKxx xxx QJxx Kx You have no bid. 2s has to show a minumum with (hopefully) 4S.

"Standard expert" is that 3S is 98% forcing. Cheers, mike

Either 1D or 1NT is an acceptable call. You need to agree with your partner what you want to do with these sorts of hands. In favor of 1D: You are more likely to go plus if the hand is a part-score hand You will generally get to the right game If that game is 3NT, you'll get to it from the right direction more often than not You are less likely to miss a diamond slam In favor of 1NT: You will sometimes be in a higher-scoring partial (MP only) You will make game more often (you'll get to some thin 3NT contracts that make) You will have a tough rebid if you open 1D and partner responds 1M (2D is an underbid; 3D is an overbid; I would choose the overbid, but ....) You are more likely to keep the opponents out of the auction if they have a partial or game in a major All in all, it's close, and I don't think one can criticize either bid. Cheers, Mike

Either 1D or 1NT is an acceptable call. You need to agree with your partner what you want to do with these sorts of hands. In favor of 1D: You are more likely to go plus if the hand is a part-score hand You will generally get to the right game If that game is 3NT, you'll get to it from the right direction more often than not You are less likely to miss a diamond slam In favor of 1NT: You will sometimes be in a higher-scoring partial (MP only) You will make game more often (you'll get to some think 3NT contracts that make) You will have a tough rebid if partner responds 1M (2D is an underbid; 3D is an overbid; I would choose the overbid, but ....) You are more likely to keep the opponents out of the auction if they have a partial or game in a major All in all, it's close, and I don't think one can criticize either bid. Cheers, Mike

Either 1D or 1NT is an acceptable call. You need to agree with your partner what you want to do with these sorts of hands. In favor of 1D: You are more likely to go plus if the hand is a part-score hand You will generally get to the right game If that game is 3NT, you'll get to it from the right direction more often than not You are less likely to miss a diamond slam In favor of 1NT: You will sometimes be in a higher-scoring partial (MP only) You will make game more often (you'll get to some think 3NT contracts that make) You will have a tough rebid if partner responds 1M (2D is an underbid; 3D is an overbid; I would choose the overbid, but ....) You are more likely to keep the opponents out of the auction if they have a partial or game in a major All in all, it's close, and I don't think one can criticize either bid. Cheers, Mike

Either 1D or 1NT is an acceptable call. You need to agree with your partner what you want to do with these sorts of hands. In favor of 1D: You are more likely to go plus if the hand is a part-score hand You will generally get to the right game If that game is 3NT, you'll get to it from the right direction more often than not You are less likely to miss a diamond slam In favor of 1NT: You will sometimes be in a higher-scoring partial (MP only) You will make game more often (you'll get to some think 3NT contracts that make) You will have a tough rebid if partner responds 1M (2D is an underbid; 3D is an overbid; I would choose the overbid, but ....) You are more likely to keep the opponents out of the auction if they have a partial or game in a major All in all, it's close, and I don't think one can criticize either bid. Cheers, Mike

Either 1D or 1NT is an acceptable call. You need to agree with your partner what you want to do with these sorts of hands. In favor of 1D: You are more likely to go plus if the hand is a part-score hand You will generally get to the right game If that game is 3NT, you'll get to it from the right direction more often than not You are less likely to miss a diamond slam In favor of 1NT: You will sometimes be in a higher-scoring partial (MP only) You will make game more often (you'll get to some think 3NT contracts that make) You will have a tough rebid if partner responds 1M (2D is an underbid; 3D is an overbid; I would choose the overbid, but ....) You are more likely to keep the opponents out of the auction if they have a partial or game in a major All in all, it's close, and I don't think one can criticize either bid. Cheers, Mike

1. Of course 3H is forcing. Since you bid 1h on the first round, 3H should show at least 5 good hearts (often 6). If you have a hand that isn't worth game, you have a perfectly fine call at your disposal: pass (and let partner play 3D with his promised good 6-bagger or better). 2. 3sp on this auction ought to show a spade fragment. You don't ask for stoppers when there are two unbid suits (you show them). Cheers, Mike

Allow me to disagree a bit with some of the other posters. Pass in 2d seat looks clear to me. If you open, you will go overboard way too often. If the hand gets passed out, you probably are going to break even in the long run. A balancing X also looks right to me. You might actually have a major suit game. Where I disagree with the other posters is with respect to your partner's action. In IMPS, I think he's right. You might as well get into the right strain at game rather than risk being in the wrong strain in a 3-level M contract. I would bid 4d in a flash. The fact that it doesn't work on this hand is immaterial. Sometimes, things just don't work out so well. C'est la vie. It doesn't mean anyone did anything wrong. Cheers, Mike

If your partner really thinks that 5S on this auction shows 2 keys and not 5, you need a new partner. You aren't bidding 4H with two keys unless you are insane. Cheers, mike

This is a matter to discuss with your partner. I would pass, both because (A) it's pretty easy to show this hand later on in most auctions and (B) if I open and partner has a 10-14 hand with no fit, we're going to get up too high. Cheers, Mike

Hi Denny. I think the main issue is what 2D means here. In what I will call "standard expert" (Bridge World Standard or similar stuff), almost everyone would interpret 2D as an artificial bid. The reason is that you have to have some sort of bid you can make holding 5521 or 5530 with a weakish (not hopeless) hand. Unless you play Reverse Flannery responses over 1m, 2H here needs to show those sorts of hands. So 2D becomes sort of a "third suit forcing" bid. You might well have a GF or strong invite with 4 or 5 hearts. Partner's 2H thus is natural showing 4H and 6+ clubs. It then seems normal to bid 3NT, although if you want to pattern out and bid 3D, I suppose that's OK, too. Cheers, Mike

Do you play that 1S has some sort of conventional meaning? Otherwise, why a negative X and not a normal 1S call?

The trouble with bidding here isn't so much getting doubled in a partscore (won't happen) as it is getting too high when partner has a good hand. You have the spade suit, so you aren't likely to be shut out if you pass and await developments. Bidding 3S (preemptive) immediately shows at least a King more than you have. If partner has a good hand, he'll bid 4S, and now you have traded +110 or +140 for -100 or -200. Bidding 2S or 1NT(f) have the same drawbacks. You are likely to exchange a plus score for a minus score. Instead, just pass the first round to show weakness. If the hand gets passed out, great; you probably can't make 4S. If the opponents come in, you can bid spades at (even at the three level if necessary) at your next turn. Partner will then have a good idea of your hand. Cheers, Mike

Yes, 6D is an overbid, as other posters have noted. You surely have a club loser; do you really think partner can cover everything else? Seems unlikely. I would bid 5D, but only because I would expect few tables to get a 5C overcall unless RHO is has 10 tricks in his hand. If RHO bids 4C, I'm bidding (either 5D or X is OK), and we're going to get to game (probably 5D), so I might as well bid over 5C. But if you want to X 5C, that's OK, too. Over 4C, you can either bid 5D (which shows a good hand) or X. I think I'd X and correct 4S to 5D. Cheers, Mike

Reopening X from partner? Huh? Partner has doubled 5C and you have to pass for penalties or take out to 5H. Passing for penalties will lose a lot more often than it will win, despite what Josh Donn may say.

5H doesn't show a really good hand in expert standard. It shows a hand that thinks 5H will be better than defending 5C. So Qxxx T9xxxxs x x You really think you want to pass 5C here?

Not even close. Pass in a flash.

As another posted stated, don't beat up on yourself too much. Pointless. More declarer errors are made at trick 1 than any other time. Often, they result from failure to plan sufficiently. I can't believe how quickly most declarers play from dummy at trick 1; it's astonishing. Cheers, Mike

The stiff Kc is a very bad holding for slam. Not only is the King worthless, but this is three fewer points your side doesn't have. In addition, you can't be sure partner has to As, either. He could have something like: Qxxx xxxxxx Kx x Wouldn't you bid 5H on that? I certainly would. Cheers, Mike

That works if clubs are 32. It doesn't work in clubs are 41, because you can't end in the dummy at trick 8.

I strongly disagree with 1S also, but there's no going back now. You can't use exclusion immediately, because your trump suit isn't good enough. You could easily be off two trump tricks and an Ace or even two Aces and a trump trick if partner has a lot of club waste. I think 3H probably does the job at this point. At least it shows a two-suiter with slam interest, which is what you have. Over 3H, you hope to hear some sort of slam try (whatever serious, non-serious methods you play). If partner temporizes with 3S, then you can bid 3NT or 4C (whatever your serious try would be). Cheers, Mike

Certainly is. Even some 17 point hands are overcalls here in the USA. It generally depends on your suit length. If you have a 6+ card self-sufficient suit, you can double and bid the suit on slightly weaker hands. The idea here is that if you overcall, you don't want partner passing with 2-card support, 8-9 HCP or so, and no stop in the opponents' suit. But if you have only a 5-card suit, you are generally perfectly safe overcalling at the one-level even with a normal 17. In fact, it's usually the best choice. Now your chances of making game often depend on partner having support. If partner has three-card support, he'll raise with a decent 6, so you won't miss game. Now you can make a game try. If you double first and then rebid your suit, partner is entitled to bid game with a 6-count and 3-card support. If partner doesn't have support, then with only a 5-card suit, you'll need him to have at least a decent 8 with a stop or two in the opponents' suit to make a game, and with 8-11 balanced and 2- cards in your suit, he'll likely bid 1NT with stop(s). Again, you won't miss a game. But if you X first and then bid your suit, partner will bid game with 6-7 HCP and stop(s) for NT. Now you are likely overboard. Cheers, Mike

Since the problem says "Second trick diamond 8," we can assume that Ozzie didn't claim until the 8d hit the table. After that, it's easy, and the Jack of clubs is indeed immaterial, although it relies on the 8D being honest and sane. If West had either or both diamond honors, he wouldn't lead the 8d at trick 2. So either West has 8742 of diamonds, or East has the D guard. If West has the 8742, the QJ get ruffed out, and the 10 is the 12th trick. If the QJ don't ruff out, then East has the diamond guard, and there is an easy double squeeze. West must keep H guard; East must keep D guard; no one can keep C guard. Jc could be a small one; same result. Cheers, Mike