Dinarius

Ps. If S bids 4❤️ over my 3♠️, I bid 5❤️. D.

After your first negative of 2♦️, partner has shown lots of tricks with ♠️ as trumps. Fine. So, why not 3♠️ as your second negative? It says, “I have practically zip, but I have something in ♠️; over to you, partner.” Isn’t that as it should be? Any forward move should be by S, I think. D.

Interesting. I also opened 1♦️. Partner passed. I rebid 2❤️ (Forcing for one round) over a 1♠️ response. Playing strong NT, in partner’s defence, the last thing he wants to hear is a 1NT rebid by opener, with an iffy 12 count. Especially at MPs. 6♦️ is cold, but not easy to get there, I think. A bad slam at MPs anyway, I think. D.

As dealer, you hold: ♠️AQ6 ❤️AQT7 ♦️AKQ97 ♣️2 Playing a natural system, what would you open? As responder, you hold: ♠️K874 ❤️92 ♦️T83 ♣️QT86 If the first hand opens 1♦️, do you bid or pass? If you disagree with 1♦️, what do you do with responder’s hand, to any other opening? Thanks. D.

You say it's MPs. If they've stolen your cold 4 Spades for minus 100 or 200, then you're getting average minus at best. I think that West has bid his eight-loser hand with his 3♠ bid, and he doesn't have another bid over 5♣. I think he has to double to protect the 4♠ missed. Even two off might not be enough at this vulnerability. But, the matchpoints difference between 5♣ doubled and making (highly unlikely, thought the correct lead may be hard to find.) and simply 5♣ making is tiny. If it's making, you're getting a terrible score, doubled or not. So, double and hope you find the right lead for at least minus two. Not easy, I'd say. (Given the Club control, I'm leading a Diamond or a Heart and not a Spade, which may be ruffed. It's almost certain that, if there are Spade winners, they can wait to be cashed.) D.

Lots of talk of 1♣️ opening in the replies. Do you seriously want to risk being passed out, at any form of scoring, with this hand? Add just the ♣️J to East’s hand and 6♣️ is virtually certain. I would never open 1♣️ unless you’re playing 5 Card Majors with a forcing ♣️. Maybe all those advocating 1♣️ are assuming they are. D.

1. I agree with 2♣️ opening. West has a four-loser monster that will take very little to bring home a slam. 2. There is an obsession with people automatically reaching for the 2♦️ card in response and waiting for clarification. Should East make a positive noise with 5+ cards and 8+ points by bidding 3♦️? 3. The 3NT disease at matchpoints is understandable. Is a slam more easily found if East makes a positive response? 4. The ♣️ slam is 68% on a 3/2 split. As the cards lie, it’s double dummy. Are they good MPs odds? Maybe not. 5. If East responds 3♦️ will N lead a heart against 3NT by West? 6. Much of the above is affected by the space consumed by the 2♣️ opening, as has already been pointed out. But, I still open 2♣️. D. K

Against blind NT auctions, are there any views on leading from sequences against NT? For example, holding K,Q,x,x,x or K,Q,10,x,x is there any received wisdom on, say, leading fourth in the first but K in the second, because you hold 10? Do spot cards affect whether to lead top or 4th? If you lead K, and the inevitable J,x,x, appears in dummy, how to you respond as partner? Attitude? Count? (I’m assuming you’re not in an obvious overtaking situation such as A,J,x,) Any other views on sequence leads against NT? Thanks. D.

Hypothetically, your club’s President’s Prize for Matchpoint Pairs is taking place over three nights. Each night there will be N/S 1,2,3 & E/W 1,2,3, etc. obviously. But, after the three nights, there will only be one winning pair. I’m asking the question, because I’ve come across numerous approaches to separating the competing pairs. They have been as follows.... 1. Each night, the first six places N/S and E/W are each awarded points 6 down to 1 in descending order. The pair with the most points after three nights wins. 2. Each pair’s % score is averaged over the three nights. 3. Each pair’s % score is aggregated over the three nights. 4. One of either 2 or 3 above, BUT, a pair is allowed to discount their worst night. a. My instinct is that % is best. You’re playing for a given number of matchpoints over the three nights. So, if you win the highest %, you should win the competition. But, if this is correct, which is better; average or aggregate %? b. Is there any sense in being allowed to discount a night? If so, should the remaining two nights be averaged or aggregated, or something else? c. I presume that whatever is best, it would apply over 4/5/6 nights also? d. Is there an alternative method I’m not considering? Thanks. D.

When vulnerable and having your opening bid of 1NT doubled, would you consider it good MP tactics to redouble? When non-vulnerable, if you scramble six tricks for -100, the chances are you're probably average plus, if they're making 110, 120, 140 or whatever. But....... 1NT doubled and minus one for -200, is almost always a zero at MP. At best 10% of the MPs. So, when vulnerable, is it worth gambling that 10% of the MPs in order to win 100% of the MPs if you somehow scramble seven tricks in 1NT redoubled? D.

I agree on the bidding comments. I prefer 2❤️ (stronger than 3❤️, as I usually play) overcall. W N E S 1♠️ 2❤️ 4♠️ P P 5♣️ 5♠️ ...seems reasonable. South never has a bid, in my view. Can North bid 5♣️? On the one hand, he has no defence to 4♠️ and maybe should bid it. On the other hand, with 2/2 in ❤️/♣️ in the S hand, N might be massacred at this vulnerability if playing in ♣️. The pass of 5♠️ is a textbook example of the Bols tip that, “The five level belongs to the opponents.” At MPs I double, because you have to protect against being denied 4/5❤️ (though in mixed room, I suspect that many will be allowed to play in 4/5❤️, so your +100 for a good pass and excellent defence will score average minus at best. Perfect Par Bridge frequently goes unrewarded at Pairs.) But, is it a good double at IMPs? Not sure. D.

I like this sequence the most. Totally straightforward and logical. Once N denies Aces, he can start showing Kings. Simple. Thanks. D.

If you raise on a three card holding, presumably because you don’t like the look of your Spades for a 1NT rebid, then you are bidding your partner’s hand (hoping he has five Hearts and, like me, doesn’t have a Spade stop) rather than your own. If you only redid NT every time you have stops in the three suits Partner hasn’t bid, you’ll lose in the long run. There is time for Partner to show five ❤️ if he has them. D.

I bid 1♦️1❤️ 1NT 3NT I would never raise with a three card holding in this situation. Play with the room, as they say. Opening the bidding, you promised a rebid, so just bid it. If you get slaughtered in 3NT on a ♠️ lead, then so be it. Everyone else should be suffering the same fate. D.

A very good point. Reverse North’s minor suit holdings, and you’re happy with game, or maybe six Spades on a lucky day. Which makes me wonder, is it better to first tell North you hold nothing in ♣️ (And therefore have no interest in anything he might hold) rather than tell him about your ♦️ holding, as one respondent did? Isn’t N in a better position to evaluate his hand once he knows from the off that ♣️ are out of the reckoning? D.

I hope that East has the outstanding 13 points. If so, ♦️9 is a huge card. I think also that you have to assume ♣️ are 3/3. I win ❤️ lead and play a ♦️ to the K. East wins and returns a heart. I win and play ♣️ to dummy and run ♦️10. If East covers, I wind and test ♣️. If they don’t break, I throw E in with a ❤️. Make sense? D.

Your five count is worth one bid, and one bid only. 1NT describes it perfectly in that one bid. You pass everything thereafter - the ball is in partner’s court. As I play, double would show more HCP, as well as those two suits, but not necessarily 5/5, or better. If you bid 1♠️, you never get to bid again. I disagree with your partner. D.

Interesting to bypass the ♣️ control/void and show the ♦️ control first. D.

Felicity, Is 4♣️ Exclusion Blackwood? If so, I presume that 4♦️ is 1/4 and 4❤️ is Queen asking? Sorry if I’m misunderstanding the sequence. Whatever, I don’t think it can be bid without Ex. Blackwood. 1♠️ 2NT 4♣️ 4♦️ 1/4 4❤️ (Q?) 5♦️ (Q + ♦️K) 5NT (GSF) 7♠️ In this sequence, ❤️K isn’t established. But, the ♦️K is the gold card. So, maybe it’s worth a punt? D.

[hv=pc=n&s=sat854haqtdaq872c&n=skqj6hk74dkjtct73]133|200[/hv] East passes as Dealer. Whatever you open as South, West passes. How do you get to 7♠? D.

I agree. One of the fundamental points at play here is that North knows that he has opening values opposite opening values. South doesn't, and can't, know this; at least not yet. That is why I believe that it's North's move, so to speak, not South's, and why Pass is South's best bid. I'm assuming that N/S are playing strong NT, so Pass by South says; "I'm minimum, and my rebid was either Clubs or 12-14 NT or, possibly though unlikely, 1♠" It's surely the most descriptive bid? North MUST compete at any form of scoring opposite South's Pass. At MPs, I would then bid 2♠ with North's hand. South would retreat to 3♣ and the picture is complete for North to bid 5♣, no? D.

Glad I got 3♦ right. Still feels right. No wasted values in Opps suit, 6 loser hand, lots of playing strength, favourable vulnerability. I figure 3♦double minus one at the very worst. If 3♦ is non-forcing, as I believe it is (a reopening Double would be the forcing bid here the way I play)then I can bid it. I still prefer Pass on number 2. Doesn't partner have to think, "What would opener's rebid have been? It has to have been NT or ♣, surely?" South's Pass screams, minimum opening and Clubs. Over to you North. D.

I play Ace for attitude, King for count. So, I expect the lead of the King in your example. My little one, from three, then let’s partner to decide what to do. (They may, of course, have led from AK or KQ or AKQ) D.

1. 3♦️(competitive, not forcing, and bidding on the vulnerability) 2. Pass