apollo1201

I think a James Bond movie (Moonraker?) had a bridge scene where the villain is beaten and loses heavy money against JB. Also a Hercule Poirot where the detective discovers the murderer ID thanks to the bridge hand records. There was a tense grand slam and only dummy could take advantage of everyone concentrated on the play to go stab the victim, unnoticed. But that is not that recent, I guess…

🤣🤣🤣 Otherwise, 4333 and 4432 are not the kind of hands that you’d not open a strong NT when dealt 15-17. It is the most orthodox distribution for that. As the othes said, your point zone will be impossible to convey after that. Yes, some dreadful 18 4333 I might open them 1NT and same some disgusting 15 (as per the examples of other posters) I’d open 1m. It is because I deem them worth 17 or 14 on these cases and I will bid them as such. So even if you have a small doubleton or something, open. Less balanced hands with 4 spades (4225 eg) and 15-17 it is really how you feel but I’d open 1NT if I have sth to protect and not good suits eg Jxxx AQ Kx KQxxx. Otherwise à Nice start for the auction will be 1m 1D/H 1S. With 4 hearts (2452) you risk difficult rebid problems unless you your hand is worth a reverse (Kx AJxx AKQxx xx) so I’d open 1NT more freely. Same, 6m322 I let you judge if 1NT or 1m followed by 3m is a best description with Kx Ax Kxxxxx AQ or Qx Axx KQJxxx Ax 5M or singleton honors is a more vast subject. I’m not opening it here!

Or balance!!!

Late in the thread but it seems it will be a dialogue like S - I have extras and we could go to slam (some kind of forcing raise at one stage, e.g. 3S after a 1S-2H-3C or 2S start) N - I’m definitely wanting to collaborate (4C) S - I’m continuing to collaborate (4D, which could also mean I do not quite have enough to rush into BW even knowing you are ok on your side) N - I have done enough noise (4H or 4S), please go on if you can S - me too (4S or pass), and starting to get worried about the D lead that we’ve gently telegraphed to the opps The bids might be different depending on methods but the overall tone would remain similar. But we’ve all been in worst slams that made, haven’t we? Or better ones that went down…

Should have specified playing common / standard-ish methods

No serious player would show a shaky 4-cd major over a strong 5-cd minor with all that strength. 2C with no other choice, planning to rebid 2S over partner’s expected 2H, and maybe 3D next depending on how things turn. Reverse the blacks to AKQx - Axxx Qxxxx and 1S looks much more attractive, planning to show C only if partner bids them naturally 1st, discovering a surprising 9-cd fit. However, things could get ugly over the not so unlikely 2H rebid, so even with that hand, 2C will be a more flexible and better anticipative bid.

And also what hands bid 1m - 1M - 3M (5422’s around strong NT opening strength? flat ugly 18’s that should have been downgraded to a 1NT opening?)

X risks partner bidding and rebidding S, which is not what I’m particularly after. Passing hoping partner Xes is probably asking too much, even in Xmas time like now. 3C is the best way to ensure to go plus, but that would often let the bidding die here when we can have game in a reasonable number of cases. So we might be the lowest score on the travel sheet. Most will bid 3 NT anyway (usually a long minor and not too balanced shape, unsuitable for X then bid below the golden contract). X followed by 3NT would be sth more balanced, 20+, I think. So I’m not really liking it much but sign me in for 3NT.

Thanks guys. Seems I would have been in good company at 3NT

It looks NF but it is more useful to have it forcing, aiming for 3NT or 5m. Although the rest of the sequence might be tricky - what is F, NF, etc. As a consequence, you probably have to pass x Kxx AJxxx Axxx. A weak 55 will have to play at the 4 level (you need to be able to stop there).

I’d rather bid 7 than 5 actually

You complain about your bad résults. But you can’t win when you play 1 against 3 whereas the rest of the room plays 2 against 2. Partner, despite having a promising hand on your GF with 2 A, doesn’t have a clue of where and how high the contract should be played. Because so far no known fit exists, and a suite is wide open. You could have a strong semi balanced hand, a monster 2-suiter, a single H suiter or a strong S fit and a semi-natural D suit. In all cases, 4NT should not be BW for D, they can unambiguously be agreed with 4D. It should therefore be natural, positive, quantitative, with strong black stoppers and no real enthousiasm with H and D.

Partner rates to have some (54)22 of ~10+ HCP. With a limited 55 they could have bid 4D (majors for me, and not a C forcing raise). Do they have the missing important cards (H AK + SK or H AKQ plus who knows the CQ might prove useful too)? Maybe, maybe not, but it would be a shame that 2 are missing. Can I know if they have all of them? Probably not. So 6C be it. I doubt that they will bid 6D, but if partner passes that…

IMPs, NV opps, LHO deals and opens 3S, two passes follow, and you find yourself in an uncomfortable situation with Qxx AKQxx Kx Qxx FWIW, the winning call here was to pass, but I don’t think it is the percentage action. In all cases, what is the best action?

As said by David, the 1NT response to the TOX is not the standard « garbage catch-it-all » 6-9 but is a rather positive hand, without suit worth mentioning, and a stop in opps suit. The range is 8-10. So with a nice 15-hand and a likely establishable suit, it is reasonable to encourage partner with 2NT, even at MPs. And W agressive opening is overcome.

E has a problem only if they have not discussed this quite common situation with their partner Most people nowadays play X as some kind of T/O, but passable by partner with eg. 4 nice trumps, stating this is our hand, while looking for the other M or stoppers.

(delete duplicate message)

An easy X…oh damn, that H6 is actually the D6…too bad🤣 Over a 1S overcall, W is pretty weak and flat. I guess it depends if S takes action, but I’m not sure 4S is the kind of call you (or partner) will like. Green vs red is the only position I’d consider it.

Regardless of how you get there, getting to 6H with a combined 32 HCP, a fit, and all suits controlled off an ace should be considered normal. That so many pairs were in game illustrâtes sth clearly visible in your other posts. The field level at the club you play is weak. You won’t be able to progress there, discussing or confronting views, seeking advice, etc.from other players. Your opp’s comment is beyond commentability. It is almost rude.

Sad news. We’ll miss his rankings and his humorous yet precise and didactic posts.

Cashing the HQ then leading D clearly places H 10x with declarer. Partner should read this and should also realize that cashing the HJ will release a trick to declarer, which is probably not a good move. She should therefore do sth else, like clearing your D while you still have a S entry (declarer has shown CAQ, HA and presumably the DA or the plays in D would have been different so has no other high card given the bidding). So the mis defence is not yours. As regards which D to return, I do not think we are in a situation where a technical card matters with 8x in dummy, probably entries to each defender’s hand at that stage of the play, and unclear situation about suit lengths around the table. So I’d just return what my agreement with partner is, be it 4th best, odd even, small promising, etc.

Your 4H call is well thought. Not much defense, and a 74 shape at green with AK in the suit are more than enough. The rest is a bit unlucky (if S doesn’t bid, N will) but partner’s X was definitely sporty, it is not guaranteed that a H is cashing. And at green, you might not even have the HA. If lots of pairs were allowed to play 4 or 5H, the level of the game at your club is not extremely high. Wether S or N bids, the other owes him 1 more trick when your side competes at 5H. The par is probably 6HX-1 at IMPs for sure and probably at MPs too.

I know there are some « adapted » BW answers for a hand that preempted who shouldn’t have 2 A e.g. IIRC, but I might be wrong, it is 5C no A (then 5D asks about K and Q of trumps), 5D and above showing 1 A and the presence or absence of KQ or both. But I’m all but expert😅

Isn’t it the walrus of V. Mollo who passed a balanced 16 count because to please a new partner, he had agreed to play weak NT?

My first instinct is to pass because I’ll catch KQJ 7th at green with three small spades cashed on the opening lead. But on a good day x Kxx xx AQ 7th makes an easy game…and slam on a finesse or friendly opps. At MPs I’ll let go, but would try sth at IMPs.