Liversidge

If opener's 1NT is overcalled 2♦, and responder has 4 hearts or 4 spades and and opener has 4 hearts AND 4 spades, is there a sure way to find the fit? For example, if responder has four spades and bids 2NT, opener replies 3♣, responder cue bids 3♦ and opener shows his hearts (3♥), what does responder do? I can't find anything to cover this situation but I am guessing responder bids 3♠to show spades and deny hearts, and opener then raises with 4 spades. Without four spades and without a stopper, what are opener's options?

I have come across several 'systems' for evaluating a hand. I know expert players can do this intuitively, but for novices like me these systems can be very helpful scaffolds. Up to now my understanding has been that until a possible suit contract has been identified, you should only add points for length, 1 point for every card over four in a suit. But if a suit contract emerges as a possibility during the bidding, you should switch from counting length to counting shortage, 5-3-1 for a void/singleton/doubleton, but downgrading it if you have less than 4 card support (e.g. a 6-2 fit). There are other more subtle areas such as whether the suit is spades, or whether honour cards are touching, or are there 10's in the hand, etc., and I am slowly getting better at this, but yesterday I came across a system from a highly respected teacher that suggests counting both length and shortage when evaluating a hand for a suit contract after a fit has been found. In this system, all other things being equal,and with 4 card support, a 4-4-3-2 hand would have 1 distribution point and a 5-4-2-2 would have three distribution points. The qualifying statement was: 'add points for length provided you intend to use the length'.

After my past posting asking how to respond to 1NT with 3-0 split in the majors, as luck would have it we had a similar situation last night, only this time with partner responding to 2NT. Partner held [hv=pc=n&n=shk75dq963ckt8642]133|100[/hv] I have checked my bidding reference and apparently with an unbalanced hand and partner should have bid 3NT. Is this still the case with a void?

Thanks. That fits with what I have just read in the EBU Modern Acol system file, which says that 1NT - 3 of anything is game forcing with possible slam potential.

Could you clarify whether you are suggesting 1NT 3D 3* 4C as forcing, or are you saying the same as Zelandakh , i.e. 1NT - 2C - 2* - 3D - 3* - 4C . I take it that you are inviting partner to choose a minor?

We play weak NT, Stayman and transfers. I had this hand last week, and partner opened 1NT. What should I have responded? I bid 2 Clubs and partner replied 2 Diamonds. We bid and made 5 diamonds. [hv=pc=n&n=shaq8dkj863ck9753]133|100[/hv] But what if partner had replied 2 hearts? Doesn't 2NT show 4 spades invitational?

I have another occasional partner who has a system not to far away from Boston Jacoby. Stayman and Transfers, with: 1NT – 2NT “I have exactly 12 HCP, no 4 card major” 1NT - 2S . "I may have exactly 11 HCP, or I may have a long minor suit" Opener rebids: 2NT with (12 HCP). Partner then chooses between passing, or bidding a minor suit. 3C with (14 HCP). Partner then chooses between 3NT, passing, or bidding diamonds. One expert has criticised this mechanistic system, pointing out that there are good and bad 11HCP hands But I would have thought that this 'quality' judgment could be applied here - for example "I may have a hand worth exactly 11HCP..."

We play that a response at the 2 level shows 10+ HCP. I suspected that I should have opened (rule of 20) but with another method, of counting HCP and adding for length, the total came to 12, just below the opening threshold. And I thought that partner should have responded to my 2C as I showed 10+ HCP, and partner agreed afterwards. What My question was really about whether there are any generally accepted guidelines as to whether a new suit by responder after passing first time is forcing, i.e. partner MUST bid. For example, if after my pass partner bids 1C and I respond 1D, is that forcing? And if partner opens 1S and I bid 2C is that forcing? More experienced players will be able to exercise judgment rather than stick to rules (such as the rule of 20, or the 12-14 rule for weak no trump etc)but for beginners like me it is quite useful to be able to say: "partner, if xxxxx then xxxxxx". I have found lots of stuff on forcing / not forcing for opener and for responder when there has not been a pass to start with, but nothing for this situation. PS: sorry Helene about getting the suit order wrong. I will know better next time!

I can't find anything that deals with whether a new suit bid by responder after his/her initial pass is forcing for one round. We play ACOL and four card majors, weak no trump. I held C: AKxxx, D: xxxx, H: KJx, S: x. After some hesitation I passed with 11 HCP (12 including distrubution) and partner opened 1H. I thought game might just be on in hearts but was worried that 2H understated my strength and partner might pass, and bidding 3H would overstate my heart length and partner might bid 4H holding only four hearts. I reckoned on bidding 2C (thinking it was forcing) and then showing delayed support for hearts, but partner,holding 5 hearts and 3 clubs, and 14 HCP, passed my 2C response. I reckoned that partner should either have 15+HCP or 5 good hearts, otherwise she would have bid 1NT, but there was always the risk that she might have a 13 HCP 4441 hand with a singleton club. I suspect she should have rebid her hearts, as my bid suggested 10+ HCP, but the broader question is whether a new suit at the 1 or 2 level by a passed hand is generally considered forcing?

The modern ACOl system file says that 1NT - 3C/3D/3H/3S "show strong suits with slam interest. I wondered whether 1NT-2C - 2X- 3C/D might indicate a stronger holding than 1NT-2S- 3C/D, which is supposed to be used with a very weak 6+ card minor. My clubs were better than this.

With both of my partners I play Acol, weak no trump, Stayman and Transfers. With the more advanced partner we use the 2S response as a transfer into a minor. With the other partner we did not have that agreement, so when I had a six card club suit headed by AK and no other HCP, I bid 2C, and after partner's response I bid 3C. Partner figured out what I meant and passed. Afterwards I wondered what that sequence would have meant to my more experienced partner. What sort of holding would he have expected?

I used to teach, and devices such as these rules are excellent scaffolds for beginners, such as in learning a language or how to write an essay. You don't go far wrong too often. And as you develop you start to understand the thinking behind the rules and can deviate with confidence. Reminds me of the quote "Rules are for the guidance of wise men and the obedience of fools"

Sorry Mikeh, I should have said partner opened 1H. We play Acol and weak NT and 1NT is not forcing, It can be a 'dustbin' bid, 6-10 HCP unbalanced. So 2C it is. I can then show 2NT next round.

We have started using the Jacoby 2NT. I held this hand. S AQ7 H J93 D J954 C A97 What should my response be now that we have given up the natural 2NT response?

You are right, Cyberyeti, - I should have said that my understanding is that Benji Acol allows a pass by responder after: a) a 2D relay and either a 2NT response from opener or b) after a 2D response followed by a 2M from opener and a 2NT negative from responder. My concern was what happens if opener takes the bidding beyond 2NT in response to the 2D relay. After this feedback I have a much better feel for it. I can respond with less than I imagined, but with 0-2 HCP and no useful shape I can still pass.

Thanks!

Many thanks. If hand 1 was 2♣ - 2♦ - 3♣ - ? with ♠xxxxx ♥Jxxxx ♦xx ♣x would you bid, 3♠ or maybe 3NT? (given that the only 'pass' option before game is supposed to be 2♣ - 2♦ - 2NT - pass with 0-2 HCP.) My partner and I play in a club where most of the players are rather more advanced than we are. Sometimes my partner is away and I pair up with someone else. Benji Weak Twos is the most popular system. When I look up references to it I find there are several variations. Some say 22-23 HCP and 8 playing tricks (9 in a minor), others say 18-22 HCP and 8 clear cut tricks. Some say you just need enough HCP for a 1 level opening and 8 playing tricks. Some say 2♦is a mandatory relay, others say it is negative. But they all seem to say that if opener bids on at the 3 level then you mustn't stop short of game, and I don't want to pass and then be reminded of this, or bid on and be asked why I didn't pass on practically a bust. If I can just satisfy myself that on a hand like this I still have to bid and that all systems have their failings and this is just one of them, then I can relax and just make the bid.

Playing Benji Acol, my understanding is that you can only pass a 2C opening if partner responds to your 2D relay with 2NT. Is this the case? If so, what would you recommend for these responder hands? 2C - 2D - 3C - ? with ♠xxxx ♥Jxx ♦Kxxx ♣xx 2C - 2D - 2H - ? with ♠xxx ♥x ♦Kxxx ♣Jxxxx Also, I gather that a 2D opening is forcing to game, regardless of responder's 2H denial response. If so, what would you recommend for a hand like this? 2D - 2H - 3D - ? with ♠Jxxxx ♥x ♦x ♣Jxxxxx

If so, would it be legal?

Splinters and Jacoby 2NT seem to me to work as a pair, investigating thin slams where one partner has a void or singleton in a suit in which the other partner has no (wasted) HCPs. Yet Splinters seem (from what I read) to get a lot more mentions. Do partnerships that play Splinters usually play Jacoby 2NT as well?

We play Benji Acol. The standard for a 2♣ opening is something like 8-9 playing tricks and good defensive values, typically 18+ HCP, or 23 HCP balanced. The following hand has 9 playing tricks but only 12 HCP. If I open 1♣ partner might pass and we could miss game in clubs if he holds something like an Ace, a club and a void in diamonds or hearts. ♣AK9765432 ♦J ♥A42 ♠ I have read somewhere that the danger with a 2♣opening is that partner won't know my strength and whether a slam might be on. And if our opponents enter the fray and bid up to 5♠ partner might double thinking I have a much stronger hand. Is there a way round this or do I just accept that very (very) occasionally I might be left in 1♣

The EBU's Standard English Acol system file states that 2NT shows the two lowest ranking unbid suits, which means it cannot be used when holding 5 Clubs/Diamonds and 5 Spades in response to a 1 Diamond/Club opening. The No Fear handout says the same, and one or two other sources. I have just come across a variation that overcomes this limitation and it seems very logical to me. There must be a reason why it's not standard, so I thought I'd ask you guys. In the same way that a Michaels Cue bid over 1H/1S, followed by 2NT from partner asks "which minor?", why can't UNT over 1C/1D followed by a Cue bid in the opponents' suit ask "which major?" So with the UNT bidder holding 5 diamonds and 5 spades, the bidding goes 1C - 2NT - pass - 3C showing no interest in Diamonds from partner, but holding support in Hearts and Spades. It seems so easy to remember, "cue bid" then "2NT" with Michaels, "2NT" then "cue bid" with UNT. There's got to be a catch??

Suppose partner opens 2NT with 20 HCP and I hold (clubs first) xx AKJxxxx x Kxx Quantitative bidding won't get to 6NT. Gerber might. Or is there another way?

I have been learning about quantitative bidding for No Trump slams, 33 HCP for small slam, 37 for grand slam. When partner opens 2NT (20-22 HCP) and I have 11- 12 HCP, I bid 4NT and partner passes with a minimum and raises to 6NT with a maximum. We use KCB for suit slams, and I have just received some advice on using Gerber to ask for aces before signing off in a No Trump contract. I am not sure how this is better than straight quantitative bidding, which is a lot simpler. With 33 HCP the partnership could be missing AK, AQJ, KKJ, KQQ, QQQJ, and I can't see how Gerber adds any additional safety. (I can see why neither RKB or Gerber are not good when there is a known void or weak doubleton, so cue bidding is used) Could someone give me an example of a situation where Gerber adds value.

My partner and I play A weak no trump, Stayman and Transfers. What should I reply to partner's 1NT be with C QTxxx D Qxxx H Jx S xx Without Stayman and transfers I would respond 2C. I don't think my clubs are long enough for 3C. I half expect LHO to double if I pass. Should I then bid 3C?