Liversidge

OK! 10+

We play that after 1♦, 3♦ shows a minimum raise (6-9 points) and 2♦ shows 10-12 points and is forcing to 3♦.

As we play inverted minors, on this hand the bidding would go 1♦ - 3♦, so for us the choices seem to be to blast to 3NT or cue bid for stops in the majors.

Hi Marlowe, sorry I wasn't clear enough with my post. The pair that went off don't play inverted minors. We do, so with the same hands my partner and I would have bid 1♦ - 3♦. I was wondering whether there was a way for us to check for stops like we do after 1♦ - 2♦, such as: opener bids 3♥, showing a heart stop and asking for partner to bid 3NT with a spade stop, or bids 3♠, showing a spade stop and asking partner to bid 3NT with a heart stop. or some other device. I take the point that by doing so you telegraph where your strengths and weaknesses lie, so it might be better just to blast to 3NT

Yesterday we played a pair where opener was 3-2-4-4 with 19 points, and opened 1♦. After his partner's 2♦ (with 8 points I think) opener bid 3NT which went off. Opener had just ♥Qx and his partner had ♥xx. We have just started playing inverted minors where, after 1♦ - 2♦, we start cue bidding stoppers for 3NT investigation. Is there anything like that for this situation or do you just bid 3NT and accept that every now and again you will be unlucky?

I should have said we play Acol and the weak No Trump, so can't rebid 1NT. What other rebid is there?

I had come across an approach similar to this and am thinking about suggesting it to partner: 2♦ = 1+ playing trick, no strong suit (5+ & two top honours), maybe balanced 2♥ = 0 playing tricks, no king, no two queens 2♠/3♣/3♦ = 2+ playing tricks, with a “strong suit”. 2NT = Positive heart suit - 2+ playing tricks with a “strong suit” 3♥/♠ = 6/7 card ONE loser major suit (KQJxxx, AQJxxx, AKJxxx) This also avoids the 2♣ -2NT - 3NT sequence where the strong hand is on the table.

I am trying to get my head round this. Klinger says that the suit opened in third seat should have good quality, one you would like partner to lead to you if you end up defending. He also says that partner should not expect you to bid again, and if you do he should assume you did not open light. So you might open ♠92 ♥ KJT74 ♦Q32 ♣A32 and hear partner respond 1♠ with four spades and 10 HCP, which might be passed out. Could someone explain the rationale thanks.

My partner and I have been playing Benji, but partner has another regular with whom he plays on a different evening, who has persuaded him to play 3 weak 2's, so I have agreed to play it too, to make life simpler. Their understanding about the minimum strength for a 2♣ opening bid is lower than I feel comfortable with. Partner is OK about playing two different strengths on different evenings. I'd welcome thoughts before finalising our agreement on this point. Should the guide minimum for a 2♣ opening be either 23+ HCP balanced, or a) 8 playing tricks M/m (with the rule of 25 etc) b) 8/9 playing tricks M/m c) 9/10 playing tricks M/m Partner's other partner plays a). My concern about it is that it asks the 2♣ bid to cover a lot of territory at both ends. A 2♦ response might be a bust with partner holding just 8 playing tricks in clubs, in which case what is my bid after 2♣ - 2♦ - 3♣? Yet partner might have 11 playing tricks. (The Multi 2 Diamond is something for the future!!)

I didn't have a choice. I couldn't ask which mistake had been made.

What if LHO opens 1♦, partner passes, and RHO bids 2♠ showing 16+ and a powerful spade suit, without showing a stop card? I might have been considering a bid with 10 points but after the jump I pass. Opps go off -50 while we could have made 2 hearts (or some better example to illustrate the point). Is there any redress?

Does LHO treat it as a jump, or assume the bidder has made a mistake, or query?

Helene gives a good justification for 'slow shows'. In terms of something easy to remember, I was hoping that it wouldn't matter either way. I liked the notion that the use of a relay 2NT : 2♣/cue bid is less positive than a direct suit/cue bid.

Not sure if I should ask this via a new post, but when Lebensohl is used to initiate Stayman, e.g. 1NT-(2♦) -3♦, or 1NT -(2♦)-2NT-(P)-3♦, most references I have found play that the first sequence shows no stop and the second sequence shows a stop, but one or two play the reverse. I haven't been able to find any comment or the pros and cons of one vs. the other. Does it matter?

I have come across a version of Lebensohl where Stayman and transfers are on after 1NT ( 2♣). 2♦ asks for a transfer to hearts. Using this system, how is Stayman initiated, and can you transfer to diamonds? Is there an equivalent for keeping systems on after 1NT - X? Most sources I have found state that systems are off after interference over 1NT. Do I take it that these ways of keeping systems on are not such a good idea?

[hv=pc=n&s=sah97542daq6cj853&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=ppp]133|200[/hv] Should I have opened? Some others did so this evening and made 4 hearts, which makes it hard to defend passing. Our ops said my hand qualified on the rule of 20, my singleton ace was valuable and I was in fourth seat, so I should have opened. I explained that almost all of my points were in my short suits, over a 1NT response I could only bid 2 clubs, and we were at adverse vulnerability. Don't think it is relevant but we play Acol and weak NT.

Very helpful, thanks. Will decide on 2 or 3 after discussion with partner.

Change the hand to this: [hv=pc=n&e=sk5hkjt743d96ck54&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1n2s]133|200[/hv] I can't see a way of inviting 4♥ (and would I want to do so, aceless and leaving my exposed honours on the table?). Or do I have to leave partner out of the decision and either bid 4♥ myself or else bid 3 ♦ and pass the response?

[hv=pc=n&e=sj5hqjt74daj7ckq4&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1n2s3dp3hp]133|200[/hv] We play Acol and weak No Trump and are about to adopt Rubensohl (well, learn it first!). How should East interpret West's bid? Might West have a) two hearts and no spade stop or b) two hearts and a spade stop, or c) three hearts with or without a spade stop? How does East know whether to pass, bid 4♥ or 3NT?

[hv=pc=n&w=skq64h8dak95ckq86&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1dp2dp]133|200[/hv] We play weak no trump and over a 1 level suit response an opener's rebid of 1NT shows 15-17 HCP. Do I pass here? If I bid 2NT what strength am I showing?

Partner bid 3 ♣ over the opps' weak No Trump. We went 3 off - -300. Partner had seven clubs with AQ missing!! I had one club. He apologised afterwards - a mad moment. With what holding would you make a bid like this?

Made a note of this! :)

Thanks!

Change ♥4 to ♣4. [hv=pc=n&w=saq764hj876dackqt&e=skj82hdkqj2cj7542&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sp4hp5dp5hp6sppp]266|200[/hv] By my reckoning (which may be suspect!) now 6♠ will make, though RKCB would reveal that responder has only one key card. With two key cards missing, West will sign off in 5♠ Mixed control bids will not identify the heart void and again West will sign off in 5♠. Using first round controls won't West take a punt at 6♠? As quite a few responders have pointed out, each system has its pros and cons, and you can produce hands like this one that support the argument for any one system. Plenty of good explanations here, which are much appreciated.

We had a hand like this last week. Showing only first round controls I think (if I have got it right!)it would quickly have become apparent that there were two losers and the contract would have stopped in 5♠. But using mixed controls then East would have been in a quandry after West bids 5♠ not knowing if West had ♣A or ♣K. Should East have splintered? Should have just bid 4♠ instead of cue bidding? [hv=pc=n&w=saq764hj876dackqt&e=skj82h4dkqj2cj752&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sp4hp5cp5dp5sp]266|200[/hv]