Liversidge

[hv=pc=n&e=sk864hq853dj74c95&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1cp1hp2dp]133|200[/hv] Partner has reversed, so I have to bid. If I understand correctly I have to bid 3♣? [hv=pc=n&e=sjt76hk76d86cq975&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1dp1sp2hp]133|200[/hv] Here I presume I have to bid 3♦? I don't feel comfortable with either situation. We could be in a part contract in a minor with a 7 card fit and 23 HCP.

That (and other replies) has made me think things through more, and I now realise that adopting four suit transfers means we can't now invite safely with four hearts and five spades and 10-12 HCP. We used to use the sequence 1NT-2♠ to show this holding, but now we have to bid 1NT-2♥-2♠-3♥. Using Stayman 1NT-2♣-2♦-3♠ involves the same risk (7 card fit with 23 HCP) but doesn't show the second major. So it makes sense use the two alternatives to differentiate between an invitational and game forcing hand by making the more informative (Transfer) sequence game forcing. This has also made me think more carefully about the impact one system change can have on other systems. Four suit transfers seemed a great way of dealing with a weak long minor, always keeping the stronger hand tenaces hidden, but we didn't spot that it would change our Stayman/Transfers understanding.

We play weak no trump, Stayman and four suit transfers. We want a system for responding to 1NT with at least 5-4 in the majors with weak, invitational and game forcing hands and doesn't involve having to remember complicated refinements that differentiate between 5-4, 5-5, 6-4, 6-5 hands. At present for all these combinations we use Stayman with weak and game forcing hands and Transfers for invitational hands, which is easy to remember. I guess the rationale is that with a weak hand Stayman has less chance of ending up with a 7 card fit, and transfers are necessary with 11-12 point hands because you can't invite with Stayman. I haven't been able to figure out whether Stayman is better than transferswith 13+ hands. Comments appreciated.

Partner and I have taken the advice of several experts on this site that the most important thing is to get a good partnership understanding rather than always looking for this year's model of any particular convention. We are using the same Modern Acol Bidding book, which we like, and are gradually adding bits as we feel up to it. We play RKCB, though I sometimes wonder why as we only play a couple of times a week and rarely get the sort of hand where it makes a difference (queen ask) compared with KCB. But we regard it as good practice for the longer term. The book has a set of responses to the Queen Ask that I haven't come across elsewhere. I'd appreciate comments. If it's just different but not inferior we will stick with it. (FYO, We only use the 'Queen ask' where we have discovered that we have all five key cards and are thinking about a possible grand slam, although I know that it can be used to help decide whether to stay in game or go for a small slam - that's for another day/year.) Responses to Trump Queen Enquiry (Step System):  Bidding one step up (cheapest bid - including trump suit or 5NT) = No trump queen  Bidding two steps up (including trump suit or 5NT)= The trump queen, but no ‘non-trump’ kings  Bidding any other non-trump suit = the trump queen AND the king of that suit. Bid the cheapest king if you have two or more.

In an article on whether 1430 is better than 3014, Eddie Kantar says: "Keep in mind that 4NT is seldom used as a key-card ask after a minor suit agreement." but doesn't go on to explain why.

Is there a way of giving partner a choice of minors after the Opps open 2♥ and you are 5+/5+ with 10-12 HCP, with most honour points in the two long suits? Over a 1 level opening bid we would use the Unusual 2NT.

That clears it up thanks. I knew that "double then bid"/"double then cue bid" were used for stronger hands with a 5+ card suit, "and double then NT/jump NT" were for stronger balanced hands with stops, but somehow had got it into my head that I hadn't got a way of dealing with a strong hand with no 5 card suit and no stop(s). I hadn't twigged that a double is unlimited.

Would you still double if the hand was a bit stronger, say swopping the ♦Q for ♦A?

I am East. What do I bid? [hv=pc=n&e=s74hak7dkq83caqj6&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1s]133|200[/hv]

[hv=d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1h1s2h2s3hp]133|100[/hv][hv=d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1h1s2hp3hp]133|100[/hv] The terms 'competitive bid' and 'competitive auction' come up regularly. I have a rough understanding of what they mean, but would welcome clarification. I have read that in the first example there is no room for West to show both a competitive and an invitational bid. East should assume that West's 3♥ is competitive, i.e. stretching a bit and prepared to make a profitable sacrifice, so East should pass. I assume that in the second example, as South has passed, the auction is no longer competitive (for the time being), and West's bid is invitational.

Just come across this in my notes. I saved it some time ago and forgot I had it. Can't remember the source. It applies to Weak No Trump openers. The 12-14 HCP limit is quite precise. You can only deviate from it if you think you have a poor 12 HCP hand or a very good 14 HCP hand. A poor 12-14 balanced hand is one that has several of the following features:  A 12 HCP flat (4-3-3-3) hand  No aces  Three Aces  No 10’s  Isolated honours  Two suits without stops  No runnable suits (e.g. ♥QJT9) With most of these deficiencies you can downgrade your hand by 1 – 1 ½ HCPs. With none of them you can upgrade your hand by the same amount. Using that list, my 13 point hand of last week 4333, 3 aces, no 10's, isolated honours, and no runnable suits. Downgrade it by 1 ½ HCP and it's not an opening hand, but partner's hand, identical except for an extra Jack, would have been just about worth a bid. I suspect vulnerability and seat (fourth?) might be factors too.

I will be very interested to read the answers to this question. Last week partner and I had two hands where we opened a weak 1NT with Axxx AJx Axx xxx (me) and Axxx AJx Axx Jxx (partner). Both went off and we got a bad score. Partner said his normal rule is not to open 1NT with nine losers but he reluctantly broke his own rule because he had 14 HCP, and says he won't do so again. I am not sure.. I would open with AJT8 AT9 A97 xxx any vulnerability but would probably pass with A653 A83 AJ2 J76 if vulnerable, but await comments.

I am trying to persuade partner to always open the major when 4432 with non-touching suits (Klinger, Crowhurst) rather than bid 'up the line', though Crowhurst says it doesn't matter that much with clubs and a major. I think your suggestion for rebidding the major rather than 1NT with 4225 or 2425 offers a good compromise.

Sorry, Cyvberyeti, I didn't mean to show a 19 HCP hand. Trying again with 17 HCP [hv=pc=n&w=sajhaj83dkjck9762&e=sq85hk962daq764ct&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1cp1dp1np2cp2hp4hppp]266|200[/hv]

All my Checkback references show it used after 1 minor - 1 major. Is there any reason why it can't be used after 1 minor - 1 minor? We play Acol and weak no trump. We play that opener's rebid should give preference to showing shape and strength over showing his major. [hv=pc=n&w=saqhak83dajcj8542&e=s87hq954dkq753ck6&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1cp1dp1np2cp2hp4hppp]266|200[/hv]

Many thanks. Just what I needed.

Partner had 11 HCP and four clubs (Axxx). We made 5 clubs. I made an elementary error assuming that my club bid was forcing (I remembered reding somewhere that a new suit at the 3 level is forcing) but afterwards was advised by an experienced player that this doesn't apply in this situation. I assume that's because we were competing, and also because partner had bid No Trumps, but would appreciate confirmation of this.

Do you 'bprrow a king' in the protective seat, as here?

[hv=pc=n&s=sk5h6dakjt5ckj864&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1npp]133|200[/hv] We play a weak No Trump. I bid 2♦, partner bid 2NT, I bid 3♣, partner passed. Should I have doubled for penalties? Is there a Landy equivalent for the minors?

Sorry I meant opening 2♣. Partner and I play that we need to be within one PT of game in our suit to open 2♣, but some at our club will open with 8 playing tricks, even in a minor! Most play that a 2♦ response shows 0-7 HCP. We have just started playing a different set of responses: 2♦ = 1+ playing trick, no strong suit (5+ & two top honours), maybe balanced 2♥ = 0 playing tricks, no king, no two queens 2♠/3♣/3♦ = Positive 7+ HCP & 2 playing tricks, with a “strong suit”. 2NT = Positive heart suit - 6-7+ HCP & 2 playing tricks with a “strong suit” 3♥/♠ = 6/7 card ONE loser major suit (KQJxxx, AQJxxx, AKJxxx) It has the added benefit that if opener has a balanced hand and responder has a natural 2NT response the contract is not played with the strong hand on the table.

Yep! Since TMorris's post I have been trying to figure this one out, without success. The way I am looking at it is that no system is perfect and this is one of those problem hands that the system doesn't deal with well. For example, a few weeks ago I posted about a hand where I had 19 HCP and opened 1♦. Partner responded 2♦. I didn't have a stop in one of the suits and was asking how I might check. The most common advice was to cross my fingers and bid 3NT. http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/74137-1d-2d-3nt/ Back to this topic - I can now think of quite a few situations where opening 2♦ with 8 playing tricks and 19 HCP could cause problems. For example: 2♣ 2♦ -3♦ - ? If partner has 3 HCP, unbalanced hand and no diamonds does he bid 3NT?

Tweak the hand to: AKx x AKJxxx AJx 8 playing tricks, where some at my club would open 2♣, which might find game where if I open 1♦ my 3♦ rebid gets passed out. I'd rather not try to cover it off with an additional mod such as an extended 2NT or cue bidding - we have enough on our plate for now. Should I just accept that it is just an example of where nothing's perfect, and occasionally 2♣ with 8 playing tricks works better, but most times it doesn't, which is why nobody who is anybody in the bridge world plays it (rehearsing my explanation to a questioning partner).

We play 3 weak 2's. We have found that the opportunity to preempt with 6 cards comes up a lot more often than hands on the cusp of opening at the 1 level or 2C level. I understand that in Modern Acol a jump rebid of my opening suit is forcing, and game forcing after a 2 level response.

Do the criteria for opening 2♣ change with a two suited hand. For example, S AKTxx H AK D AKxxx C x has (I think) 10 playing tricks and 6 defensive tricks. Are all the fourth and fifth cards in the long suits reliable playing tricks. And the fit might turn out to be in diamonds.

My Acol books say likewise. Also 4♠ shows a pretty solid 7 card suit and around five losers.