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Before, we were discussing 2/1 sequences. I believe that after a 2/1 2nt by opener or responder should be game-forcing (except after 1♦-2♣). The sequence 1M-1nt is different. But here too it is not a bad idea to play 2nt as game-forcing. Responder can relay with 3♣ and opener can then show a 5-5 naturally, repeat his 6crd suit or bid 3nt with clubs. Since 1♠-1nt-3♠ is not forcing, going via 2nt is the only way to force with a 6crd spade suit. So it doesn't tell you anything on the suit quality. Regarding your example: I believe that hand is too strong for a non-forcing 1nt (note that 11hcp is the exception when you only have singleton/void in spades). I recommend this bidding: 1♠-2♦-2nt-3♣-3♠-4♠ etc. Responder has now shown (at least) 10hcp, 5 diamonds, 4 clubs and honor doubleton spades. I think it is not unreasonable for opener to ask keycards next and bid 6. S.

No, you can play 2nt by responder forcing as well. I play it that way. With a doubleton spades and 10hcp or with a singleton spades and 11hcp we respond 1nt. Note also that 1♠-2♥-2♠-3♥ is not forcing. S.

These (together with pass & 3nt) will get you very far: 3♣ (Puppet) Stayman3♦/♥ Jacoby Other responses are far less likely... S.

A small change can make a big difference: Include the hands you now rebid 2nt with in 2♠. Only rebid 3minor with a 4crd suit. Rebid a forcing 2nt with the hands that don't fit elsewhere. These can be NT-oriented hands that want to give partner some space to bid his hand or these can be strong hands with a crappy 6crd suit that cannot rebid 3♠. I don't know how you continue after 1♠-2♥-2♠ but this is what I recommend: pass only with spade shortness (and a minimum of course)2nt game-forcing (this implies that your NF 1nt response can be up to 10-11hcp)3♠ exactly a 3crd suit and invitational After 1♠-2♥-2♠-2nt opener can still show an unbalanced hand with a 4crd minor or a 6crd spade suit or can just raise to 3nt with a balanced hand. Of course you can also switch to 2/1 GF, but this will require more work. S.

I'd open 4♠ when red vs white in 1st, when red in 2nd or when in 3rd. I'd open 1♠ and rebid 4♠ the rest of the time (unless we play Namyats). S.

Partner knows you are a passed hand. You have a maximum. Bid 6nt. S.

I play the same kind of system as you do, but with a forcing 2nt rebid. If both 2♠ and 2nt are not forcing, you have serious system issues. The bidding is over now, the guessing has started. Your guess is as good as mine. S.

No. I would have Splintered instead of Jacoby 2nt. You must play a very low or tight range for your Splinters if this hand does not qualify... S.

Mis-evaluated by West. His hand is good enough for an invite. S.

If opener does not pre-accept, responder's 3nt shows a mild slam interest without shortness. The assumption is that a hand with mild slam interest is strong enough to bypass 3nt when opener does pre-accept. There are several options for the meaning of the 4-level bids now. This is what I like: 4m: Last Train, allowing opener to sign off in 4nt with a minimum4nt: Optional Blackwood, allowing opener to sign off in 5m with a minimum4x: control-showing with serious slam interest S.

4nt-5♠-5nt-7♣-7♦

I think it is better to play 4nt as a slamtry for clubs, 5♦ as natural, 5♥ as a slamtry for spades, 5♠ as a slamtry without heart control and 5nt as pick-a-slam. I agree with the rest. S.

Double is penalty. 4nt should show slam interest in clubs. 5♥ should show slam interest in spades. 5♠ asks partner to bid 6♠ if he has the hearts controlled. S.

♠A ♣KA ♣ruffed; duck a heart if still on lead This wins with clubs 4-2 or 3-3 & hearts 3-2 (3 hearts must be with 2 clubs) S.

An alternative is: Keep 3nt to playUse 4♣/♦ as major suit transfersUse 4♥/♠ as minor suit transfers Continuation after minor suit transfer: 2nt-4♥ then 4♠ interest; 4nt no interest, no fit; 5♣ no interest, but fit 2nt-4♠ then 4nt no interest, no fit; 5♣ interest; 5♦ no interest, but fit

It must be 5-5 because there is no logic in it being 5-4... With invitational 5♠4♥ it goes 1nt-2♣-2♦-2♠. With invitational 5♥4♠ it goes 1nt-2♦-2♥-2♠. With forcing 5-4 it goes 1nt-2♣-2♦-3Major (Smolen or natural). The only choice to make is forcing or invitational. Forcing is indeed the standard. Though I like to play it invitational. With 5-5 and slam interest I bid 1nt-2♣-2♦-4minor showing shortness. If game is enough I bid 1nt-2♥-2♠-4♥ choice of games. S.

I play Ace Attitude King Count for some years now. It is more complicated than it sounds. For starters, people tend to forget it also implies "Queen Attitude". Against suit contracts: From a doubleton or 3crd the A or Q is lead. From a 5crd or longer the K is lead. Only from a 4crd there is a choice to make. Usually the K is lead from AK but the Q from KQ. Against no trump contracts: The K is the power lead, meaning the A or Q is lead from less powerful holdings. Against a 5-level contract (or higher) the K is always lead from AK (the A lead denies the K).

After 1♣-1M-2♣ I can only invite with 2nt or 3♣ because I use 2♦ as a GF relay. S.

direct 3x natural constructive (8-11)3♠ asking stopper, denying 4♥3nt showing stopper, denying 4♥4♥ 5crd, to play via 2nt 3x natural weak (0-7)3♠ asking stopper, showing 4♥3nt showing stopper & 4♥4♥ 5crd, but stronger than direct bid

3♣-3♦ with a 5crd major responses: 3♥ = 3crd ♠ 3♠ = 3crd ♥ 3nt = no 3crd major 4♣ = no 3crd major (and don't want to play 3nt) 4♦ = 3crd ♠&♥ then: 3♣-3M always shows a 6crd 3♣-4♦ shows slam interest in clubs

After (1m) dbl (p) there is something to be said for bidding 2M with a 5crd suit. After (1♥) dbl (p) I think you should be able to bid 2♠ on a 4crd suit.

If I understand correctly, this is about telling the difference between a doubleton and a 4crd suit? From a 4crd suit usually the 2nd highest is played. So if there is only one higher card remaining, the distribution is known. If there are two higher cards remaining and declarer plays one of them, there is still ambiguity. S.

(a) No, but I think it's close to double (b) Yes, I would double, but I think it's close to pass © 1nt doubled after (1nt)-p-(p)-dbl-(p)-p-(p) assuming they do not run (d) Whatever method you are playing, double should be business after a weak nt (e) Depends on whether they could double... (f) It is playable, but I think Suction works better against a strong nt (g) No. 3nt probably doesn't make, so even passing out 1nt will not be so bad... S.

I would only pass the first hand because that one is the worst. S.

I think it was Bergen who proposed that a strong 2♣ opening should have at least 4 quick tricks and no more than 4 losers (the 4&4 rule?). S.