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After 1NT-2♦-2♥-2♠-2NT, what does responder do without a 4crd side suit (5332), assuming a rebid of 2NT would have shown clubs? Steven 1NT-P-2♦(transfer)-P- 2♥-P-2♠(unbalanced GT in hearts)-P- 2NT(asking)-P-? 3♣ shows 5♥/4-5♣, game invitational 3♦ shows 5♥/4-5♦, game invitational 3♥ would be: (a.) 5♥/4♠, game invitational, or (b.) Some 6331 with hearts, invitational (the choice depends upon preference and other systemic bids) With some 5332 with hearts, you do not bid 2♠ initially. You transfer and then bid 2NT. This style forfeits playing in 2♠ when you have 5♥/4♠ and invitational, or 2NT for that matter. The solutions for that problem are as follows: 1. Give up on Garbage Stayman. I hate that solution. 2. Transfer and then bid 2NT. Partner can bid a 4-card spade suit if he can accept the game try. I prefer this solution. 3. As mentioned, transfer and then bid 2♠. This solution bites, in my opinion, as you lose playing 2NT and 2♠, both. 4. Treat the hand as both majors. When you bid 2NT, partner, if accepting, can bid 3♥ to suggest a heart contract if you happened to be 5♥/4♠. 5. Combine 2. and 4. above as judgment directs you. I'm looking for a way to combine this with second round transfers (after Jacoby). Since 1nt-2♦-2♥-2NT is a transfer to ♣, I can't bid this with a 5332. Giving up on Garbage Stayman can solve this, but I don't like that either. After 1nt-2♦-2♥-2♠ I could play 2NT as a natural minimum (possibly missing a ♠-fit) and 3♣ as a GF relay. Or maybe I should just upgrade invitational to GF... I know Meckwell play these second round transfers, but I don't know how they solve this problem. Steven

After 1NT-2♦-2♥-2♠-2NT, what does responder do without a 4crd side suit (5332), assuming a rebid of 2NT would have shown clubs? Steven

Thanks for all the suggestions! I like Mike's idea: just bid 3NT with an invitational hand without a major. It's definitely simple (and I believe in its merits when playing for imps). I saw several suggestions to play 3♣ as weak twosuiter minors and 3♦ as GF twosuiter minors. You don't need this when playing minor suit transfers. Especially when you accept by bidding the suit, like this: 2♠ --- 2NT = don't like ♣ --- --- 3♣ = to play (weak/invitational) --- --- 3♦ = GF minor twosuiter (55) --- 3♣ = like ♣ --- --- pass = weak onesuiter --- --- 3♦ = GF minor twosuiter (55) 2NT --- 3♣ = don't like ♦ --- --- pass = weak twosuiter minors --- --- 3♦ = to play (weak/invitational) --- 3♦ = like ♦ --- --- pass = weak onesuiter ♦ OR weak twosuiter minors I know this isn't how minor suit transfers are usually played, but it seems like a good idea. Steven

The context is a strong (14-16 or 15-17 1NT opener). I've already decided on Stayman and on Jacoby with second round transfers, on 3M as a splinter with 54 in the minors and on Texas. That leaves the 2♠/NT/3m responses... I see several alternatives: 1. Minor suit transfers (2♠ & 2NT): all weak and strong minor one- and twosuiters can be bid through the transfers. It also allows opener to show whether he likes the suit or not (getting to those 22-23hcp 3NT contracts). The obvious drawback is that you need to go through Stayman if you just want to make a natural invitation to 3NT. Against that the 3m responses are still open to show other hands (Puppet Stayman?) 2. 2♠ as above, 2NT natural, 3♣ transfer ♦ (weak/strong), 3♦ natural invitational. It is possible to bid the same minor suit hands as above, except for the weak twosuiter. 3. 2♠ asking min/max; I haven't worked out this one yet, but it seems you can't combine this with the invitational (with suit acceptance) minor onesuiters. What do you recommend? Steven

I would have bid 5♦ at my previous turn. I consider 3NT some form of matchpoints insanity... I can't find a reason to pass 4♦ now, so still 5♦ for me. Steven

1. Double fit in the blacks, ♦A and single ♥. Enough for a game try by South. 2. 3♣ by South. South knows his partner must have 8 or 9 cards in the minors. You might end up in a 4-3 or 5-2 but it's MPs! Steven

1. 6♥ (I expect partner to have a good suit) 2. 6♣ (unless you want to defend 5♠) 3. 3♥ (lead directing; 4♦ is as high as I want to go) Steven

An approach I read about in Hughes' book: 1♣ - (1♠) - pass = 0-4 or trap dbl = 5+ balanced 1NT = transfer ♣ 5+ 2♣ = transfer ♦ 5+ 2♦ = transfer ♥ 5+ 2♥ = 3-suiter GF 2♠+ = 2-suiters and other specialized bids GF You should also consider what to do when they use something like Crash or Twerb against you and you don't have a cuebid... Steven

I play that a 2NT advance to a takeout double is GF. Technically, this is probably not the best solution, but it is simple and effective.

1♠ 2♥ 3♦ 3♠ 4♣(1) 4♥(1) 5♣(1) 6♠ 1: cue 5♣ looks like a void, otherwise he probably would have bid 4NT (RKCB). With ♠KQ and ♥AK six must be reasonable at least. Steven

♣A, then ♠J.

I usually don't pass with 7hcp or more. I usually don't bid with 4hcp or less.

So West lead from AJ65(x) and East had Tx(x)... ♥K ♦K ♣K ♣J (assuming they ducked twice) ♦A ♠J even it loses to the Q, your contract is made... Steven

I'll start with the ♦K and a ♣ to the J...

♠AKxx ♥A9x ♦QTxxx ♣x ♠x ♥KJTxx ♦xx ♣AKxxx Contract: 4♥ Lead: ♠Q Is there a line that wins if RHO has ♥Qxxx and only 2 clubs? Steven

My previous reply was based on a more natural (and standard?) defense against multi where double is 12-15 balanced and any overcall is natural. I don't understand your defense. How do you differentiate a 12-15 balanced hand from a takeout for a major? Steven

1. You have to agree on how to play the 2NT response and play it the same way through out. Lebensohl is most common, but we play it as GF. So: Dbl is takeout for the major RHO has bid; any suit is natural but NF; 2NT is GF but unsuitable to double 1a. 2NT GF (as above) 2. We play it the other way around: dbl is takeout for the other major (easy to convert to penalty) and 3♠ (over 3♥) or 3NT (over 3♠) is takeout for the bid major (both can be passed). 2a+b. Sure. 3NT might score better than defending 3M doubled. Steven

After which I could only bid 3C???? Really?? What about a quantitative NT bid rather than a non existent suit? I am not surprised your partner left. First, leaving the table like this is rude and there are no excuses for it... Second, I consider 3♣ the worst bid in the sequence. It shows a club suit which you do not have. Bid 4♣ instead. This can't be mistaken for a natural bid since you didn't bid 3♣. If partner cooperates in the cue bidding, you won't have a problem in reaching 6♥. (Note: in Europe it's common to cue second round controls) Steven

So you assume partner has ducked with ♠Kx? I still think that something like: ♠Kxx ♥KJx ♦AQx ♣KTxx or the hand I posted earlier, is more likely. I don't expect this hand was declared perfectly. I am still returning a ♣... Steven

Declarer's hand probably was: ♠Kxx ♥KJx ♦AQxx ♣KTx A ♣ return is necessary. Even without the ♦8 in declarer's hand he will make his contract on a ♦-♣-squeeze against partner if you return a passive ♠. Steven

Kaplan Inversion (aka Granville) = 1♥ - 1♠ = at most 4 spades 1♥ - 1NT = at least 5 spades After 1♥-1♠ the 1NT rebid shows exactly 4♠5♥ in a hand not strong enough for a reverse of 2♠, so this is not forcing. My question now is: how do you rebid with 4♠6♥?

I would rather think the opposite. Partner passes with 14-15hcp and bids 2♦ with less. If you are likely to have the minority of the points, 2♦ might score better then 1NT... Steven

We have one spade trick. Our club trick isn't going anywhere. Why not continue spades and let declarer figure out where his eleventh trick is coming from? Steven

This is a good treatment after a 1♥/♠ opening. The 1♦-2♣ situation is completely different however. I use the standard approach (2NT with 12-14 and 3NT with 18-19), but 3♣ is GF with support. I only have to improvise with a weak hand with club support (rebid 2NT with a semi-balanced hand or rebid 2♦ with a 5crd suit). There is a better solution (by Eric Kokish): 2♦ = 5+crd F1 (can have 4crd major) 2♥ = 4-4-4-1 F1 2♠ = 4+crd ♣-support GF 2NT = 12-14 balanced 3♣ = support NF All this assumes you are playing a 15-17 1NT opening. Steven

Sorry Ben I forgot to tell, that the lead is ♣9. Al ♣Q. ♠ to Q. Suppose it loses: A. They switch to ♥ (before or after taking their ♦ trick) Let it run to your Q. If this loses to the K, play ♥ to A when you have regained the lead. Now play the ♠T and make the decision. B. They continue ♣ or ♦ Play the ♠A and continue ♣, discarding ♥. If it wins, play the ♠A and continue ♣, discarding ♥ So basically the plan is to loose one ♦ and two ♠ or to loose one ♦, one ♥ and one ♠... Steven