Shugart23

was not playing the jump as game-force; playing it as 22+. I will look up Kokish relay. I gather your unbalanced 1C opening has a wider range than mine ? Do most precision people use the jump to be a game force ? (Edit If Kokish relay is intended to show a certain type of balanced strong hand, we use Oliver Clarkes Super Precision Cambridge Relay methods to show NT distributions for all the various ranges)

In Precision, can you show me what you all do with Responder's second bid ? I found the following responses , which don't seem unreasonable minimum NT - minimum , no support 0-3 HCP simple raise- minimum - 3 card support 0-4 HCP new suit - maximum -no 3 card support 4-7 HCP jump raise - maximum - 3 card support 4-7 HCP jump NT - maximum , balanced, no 3 card support 4-7 HCP Thank you

yes, it's not a declarer play issue, it was as noted before: Is the king ahead of or behind my ace? I guess I was looking at like this : suppose everybody in the room is equally good at declarer play. Then the only way to win is going to be by being better at landing in the right contract than everybody else. so, if I am able to find slams better than most in the room, should I bid it where it's on a finesse. It seems unanimous opinion is no, which I can see

This is a matchpoint question : If you know you have a 50% chance of making slam, should you bid it, knowing most of the room will stop at game and make game ? Is your answer different in IMPS ? Thank you

Can I gte a quick refresher on negative double when partner opens artificial 1D and is overcalled 1H, 1S and 2C. With the first two, I'm promising the other Major and nothing about the minors, I assume, but if my memory is faulty, please remind me. If bidding goes 1D-2C am I promising both Majors, or is that just partnership agreement. For purposes of negative double, are we treating the artificial Diamond as if natural ? Thank you

Yeah, I am thinking UCB is when we open and are overcalled.....not when we do the overcall....but I guess it serves the same purpose in that I am asking overcaller to further describe his hand..

This will be my last question for a while...We play transfer lebensohl, but that doesn't really matter for purposes of this question. Playing precision, partner opens 1D,1H, or 1S and the opponents overcall with a bid of 1NT or higher. Has anyone considered using (transfer) lebensohl in this sequence? eg. any 2 level bid is to play, bid of 2NT is transfer t0 3C and is beginning of an invite ( or a Club bust), and so forth. Opener's HCP is known to be 11-15, so Responder has a pretty good idea of whether to shut it down , invite, or force. Partner and I would do this, but I have never seen it anywhere else.

thanks for some reason I thought the UCB was only when the opponent overcalled us.. Thank you. I will look it up

Partner and I used to play that if she overcalled the opponent, I would cue-bid to ask her the quality of her overcall. Typically, I might have an opening bid myself and wondering if she was weak or might we have something/game worth fighting for. With a poor overcall, she just retreats, otherwise takes some other action. Is there a name for this convention? I can't recall if this is just something we made up or if there is a write-up on what the follow-up bids are, Thanks

Thanks guys I'll look over the responses and the link(s)

so my view is with 5-7 when partner has shown a Major, I will give him one more bid (atleast)...your view is with 5-7, over a minor, I should always bid, evem with no fit or 5 card suit ?

I appreciate you guys and gals helping refresh my memory. SO, assume you have 5-7 HCP, no 5-card suit, and partner opens 1C... I seems to recall that was 5-7 HCP, I owe my partner a bid if he has shown a Major, as in 1C-1D-1S-? (Whether or not I have a 5-card suit), but is this true when Opener's suit is Diamonds or Clubs? e.g. 1C-1D-2C-? or 1C-1D-2D-? I suppose with 7 HCP and 3+ card support, you probably ought to raise. I guess my question is, when are you allowed to pass your partner when bidding has gone 1C-1D-2m? Thank you

If Opponent's bid a preemptive contract ( not necessarily over a 1C bid), would your double being interpreted as take-out vs. penalty be different if partner wsa passed hand or not ?...eg 3H-double by you -Pass- ? or pass-3H-double by you - P-? both cases being a double, but being a little more cautious if i have passed already ?

Yeah, I was wondering more about the higher level bids by the Opponent over the 1C bid. For instance is 1C-3H-P-P - double always take -out ( which partner can leave in with a suitable hand), or is it always penalty oriented ( which partner could take off) ? Or is it just dependent upon partnership agreement of what level 'X' the double shifts from take-out to penalty ? I think this is the right answer as was suggested On a somewhat related question...what if Responder has given a positive response, would all doubles by Opener be penalty oriented...eg. 1C-Pass 1H-2S -double and 1C-1H-1S-Pass- double.......would everyone consider opener's double a penalty double in both cases ?

Thanks...I'm not disagreeing. I'll see if anyone else has suggestions as well...

I played a guy who bid like that, so I could just throw in any interference bid against his 1C bid and not worry that I would be penalized ( especially when his partner was already a passed hand)

I am teaching a good 2/1 player Precision. My problem is I played Precision for about 7 years, then switched to MICS for 3 years ( keeping much of the 1C bids intact) and now haven't played in 3 years due to pandemic and wife retiring from the game, I have forgotten a lot. Assume Partner opens 1C ,is overcalled and then two passes follow and we are back to the Opener. My 3rd hand pass would show 0-4 HCP or that I have Opponents suit and want Opener to double on my behalf. so, 1C-1H-P-P -double by opener is a double on my behalf which I remove if weak. But what if bidding went 1C-2S -P-P- double or 1C-3H-P-P ? Can anyone who plays precision pass along some words of wisdom ( for me to absorb and pass along) on when the strong hand doubles, when is it for penalty vs. reopening ? DO we just say that if the 1C bidder doubles any bid over 'X' it is for penalty and any double below 'X' is doubling on my behalf ? Please assume that I have passed in 3rd seat, so Opener knows I do not have 5-7 HCP. Thank you very much

Playing Matchpoint, a non-vulnerable 1NT bid going down 1 is usually a top board. Playing precision, with favorable colors and if bidding went P-P-to me, I would open 1NT with 8-15 with some success. My LHO opponent often would be frustrated and make his bid (or occasionally complain to the director). Partner and I couldn't use any 'escapes' but bidding naturally could try and find out 7+ card fit or just play it at 1NT doubled. Vast majority of times, my LHO bid. I'm not sure if this was 'good' bridge, but it worked most of the time in club games, but I wouldn't recommend the approach with IMP scoring

Yes...my question really had to do with, not the opening lead, but why the methodology changes after the opening lead with an introduction of new non-trump suit. Thank you

Against a suit contract, one leads second from touching honors ( unless its your partner's suit).....I believe you are correct that against a NT contract, the J denies the Q. Thanks, I'll mull over your answer about the switch to doubleton (Maybe Rusinow leads and my understanding of Jounalist leads against suit contracts are exactly the same)

With touching Honors, and against a trump contract where partner has not bid, Case I you hold Q,J and Case 2, you hold Q,J,x . In both cases, you have decided to lead this suit. In Case I, you lead the Q and partner knows you either have the King with another one, or it is a doubleton headed by the Q (or it was a singleton). In Case II, you lead the J, and partner knows you either have the Q with another one or a doubleton headed by the (or it was a singleton). In both cases, it becomes apparent to partner either from him looking at his own hand or when the board comes down or upon the second lead of the suit. My question is why this methodology isn't used in subsequent leads when a new suit is opened for the first time...For example, against a Spade contract, suppose I lead the 10 of Hearts, and Partner takes the Ace and shifts to a Diamond lead. With a sequence in Diamonds, say KQJ, he is 'supposed' to lead the King, as opposed to the Q

It doesn't really take a lot of thought that one is going to struggle and thereby giving UI. Just make a point of taking 5 seconds every time and put your card face down. It's not remotely comparable to the lead coming to you and you are in second seat, and you hesitate, letting the entire table know you have the King. The rule says can't do it if there is a break in tempo, so just be consistent with your timing. I will see what ACBL has to say and come back to the thread

You are right, I must have been fogged out. My current method is to lead a low card (say 90% of the time) as an attack. Not necessarily 4th down and could be odd or even. Mu current method is to lead a high card (say 10% of the time) to convey that this is not a suit I want to attack as far as my hand is concerned. So, the purpose of this string was to query whether the high card can be a suit preference signal, legally, only on the opening lead. Apparently, the answer appears to be yes, as long as I am consistent with taking my 5-10 seconds before I put my cared face down

This method adheres to the idea of trying to attack the suit which you think will develop the most tricks. Probably 90 percent (a guess) we would go aftercare our best defensive suit. I was not suggesting one should try ad lead poor suits.

whether it is inadvertent or intentional, UA is being passed I usually take several seconds - 5-10 maybe, reviewing the bidding and thinking about the best opening lead against any declarer. Even sometimes in the middle of a hand I'll take a few seconds to calculate things in my head and pause before I lead. Doesn't everybody ?