bigbenvic

I dislike intensely the suggestion that you change your bid because partner hesitated over 4♠ If your plan is to bid 3♥ or 4♥ and bid ♣ over any competition then by acknowledging the hesitation and changing your action to pass aren't you guilty of breaking the rule you are afraid you will be accused of if you bid now? So If I wanted to cheat as your partner, I could hesitate before passing to "tell" or "stop" you from bidding on, which is what the rules are in place to stop.

What's partner looking for? a 7th spade is nice and might be our 12th trick but often he's looking at stopping them getting to 2 before that. He knows I have a shortage, what did 5d ask (or show)? My gut feel is that he's holding AK of trumps and is looking for an outside card in the right spot to go with the singleton. I don't have one so will take the action that shuts him down the most at this point.

IMO the issue here is that East made a lazy bid of 5♦ when he had a much more inclusive bid of 4♥ to make, given he has decided not to pass 4♦! I think I would bid 2♥ after the 1♦ response, it show a big hand and a good suit. I'd love for it to show a Diamond fit (but that is not practical) but I may be able to bid Diamonds later in the auction and partner might work out my 6-4 shape. The benefit I see here in 2♥ is that it takes away space from south who may not butt in with his spade suit now, at least I've made it harder for them than 1♥ does. What would 4♥ be after 1♦? One bid should set Hearts as trumps (2♥, 3♥ or 4♥) and if that's 3♥ maybe 4 could be this type of hand?

Ten 4th is a stopper right? at the table I'd try 1NT and then I'd redouble for rescue if they x. At imps I think I bid 1 spade.

This is a rock of a 15 count, I'm backing in for sure, would 2H show just a 4-5 or would it suggest more shape than I have?

At this Vul I would open 1♠ if red I would open 2♦ (4+4+ H+S) I also think I must be out of step with everyone as my bidding would (sadly) go 1S 2D 2H 3C* 4SF as 2/1 isn't a GF for me 3S* showing the 6th spade with the plan to pull 3NT to 4H to show the 6-5 and play in 1 of my suits. At this point as responder I now hate life, bid 3nt on a 0265, bid a 6-0 fit a 4-2 fit or try for 1 of my suits? Clubs is an awful suit to bid but stands a better chance to find the right spot than diamonds as I must be 1165 or worse here to not bid 3nt. Only issue is if partner thinks we are slam hunting! 4C 4H P and prey we aren't too high. It seems weird but maybe passing in first seat and biding my time is the best move as I have both majors and a 10 count. I'd never think of it at the table but I wonder...

This is a tough one, we have half the deck, partners cards are sitting over openers, the hand looks a misfit and they are at the 4 level. I want to double and I think I will but I will be preparing an apology in my head before dummy tracks. And usually that is a sign that I probably should pass!

I may be a wimp but I'm passing. It's close but AK in clubs and Q 4th in both majors doesn't seem enough to want to re-enter the auction with a 15 count. I assume your NT is 15-17 (or 18) and so I'm a minimum, soft values in our likely trump suit. Yes the shape is right for a double but I've had these hands end up in 3Maj X -1 or 2 and IMP's lost many more times than I've had it go X all pass and Imps for us, or any of the other positive things that could occur. Edit I should also note that I usually put emphasis on the short suit straining to re-open and I do only have 2 diamonds which is what makes this close to a bid and I would not be unhappy with a partner who chose X.

I would pass but it's very close, 1♠ being my second choice.

However his partner jumped to 6♣ which is a red flag and at best he has xx in hearts. The jump is so extreme that I would be expecting something closer to AQx xx AQ AKJxxx as you are using up a lot of space and when you do that in a non competitive auction you should reserve it for a narrow range of hand types, here it should be 6 card suit and no tolerance (Jx or worse though you have the J so xx at best) for the primary suit, though 3 in the second suit is possible. I agree RHM in hindsight 3nt would be the much better rebid after 1♣-1♥ but I tend to use that as a solid suit AKQxxx or better as you are saying I have good points and a running suit (even though it doesn't always run!) on this hand if I have to fib that's a much better one. 6H on AQJxx might be fine if you know he has the K♥ but unless you are coughing, board tilting or other then I think it's a wrong bid in this auction.

The 6-1 break is unlucky but 6H seems a poor bid to me, 6c had to be a choice between clubs and NT surely? AQJxx is 1 heart short for me to suggest that slam. I would just bid 6nt over 6♣ as if partner had any interest in my suits he wouldn't jump like that. I think I'd rather open 1♣ and bid 2nt even if 18-19, I loathe reversing into a 3 card suit, I am all for bidding a lower minor with 3 to solve hard hands though. Over 2nt he is now in charge as my hand is limited, so 3♦ allows me to deny a heart fit a diamond fit and 6nt seems any easy spot to get to now. I don't mind 2nt as an opener on that shape with a stiff king, but understand why many don't.

X and I like to have an agreement where 4nt is to play after any suit bid by partner. If I want to slam try I have to bid 4♠ which is a slam try in whatever his second bid was. Not sure I am strong enough but the x and bid 4nt shows better than a direct 3nt bid so a balanced 15-17 type hand, 16-18 if we open 11 counts with 5 card suits.

Could 4♣ just be a strong 5-5? I am bidding 4♥ to show the 6th Heart and since I am bidding again after 2NT then I am very strong, If I was intermediate I'd overcall, and if I was weak I'd 2NT and pass. I think I'm bidding 5♦ over 4♠ but only as I have both red JT's. It's close to a pass over 4♠ as I am not sure anyone is making. Without the JT's I think it's more likely we could be facing the situation where both sides are past the last making contract but I need so little from pards on this hand that I would bid again, I suspect 5♦ has a better chance than 5♥ too.

Lol, I'll try the 2 again :-) Sorry I was so busy working on the maths that I totally overlooked that tiny little flaw. A cunning plan Baldric.......

There's also the 1 case of stiff Q offside, where you can finesse the ten (1/12 of .15 = 1.25%) and the 4-2 breaks where the Q falls doubleton, (10 of the 30 4-2 combo's or 1/3 of 48%, which is 16% plus half the other ones (48-16=32 halved is 16%) which gets me to 36 + 1.25 + 16 + 20 = 73.25% There's about a 0.5% of the K♠ being stiff, which takes us to 73.75% which is almost 74% Edit: I edited this as I originally only had 5 of the 30 4-2 combo's but given either hand can have Qx it should be 10 of the 30 combo's.

I do not understand people advocating for opening a 4522 15 count 1NT WHEN 13 of the 15 points are in the majors. Happy to open that shape in NT's but prefer to have more than a Qx in the 2 weak suits. Something like KTxx QTxxx AT AQ would be more suitable for a no trump opening.

Assuming 19 total trumps (you say they have 10 we have 9) no known double fit (because Pards didn't bid 3♦!) Lets have a quick look at the possible results We make 12, they make 7 5cX = +800 5s = +480 6s = +980 but are we bidding this every time? We make 11, they make 8 5cX = +500 5s = +450 6s = -50 (or 100) can we stop every time it's right? We make 10, they make 9 5cX = +300 5s = -50 (or 100 if doubled!) In each of those cases there is more to be gained from taking the money than bidding on UNLESS we get to slam and it's right Yes the total tricks could be 20 or 21 and yes we have the better point count, we could (and do) have a double fit so the Law could be +1 or +2 on top again which makes bidding on better but you don't know in this auction you are guessing. Which is why I like 3♦ instead of the lazy 3♠ so much! I've seen many opponents, (including CHO) jump to 5 of a minor in these situations when they only have a 9 card fit, let alone 10 or 11. The more people play a wide ranging style of pre-empting the wider the range of hands they can have. Is 3♣ a legit overcall or a pre-empt? If a pre-empt is it 6 or 7, if legit could it be 5? I prefer to have rules in bidding that are consistent, define when we are in a forcing auction, define when X is penalty or take-out (or other) Define when a pass becomes forcing within an auction ie we're in a GF or have b id game with clear intent to make etc. Here the transfer is unknown, the super-accept is not GF so we are not in a game forcing situation. West knows what is going on, East doesn't. So a pass from West over 5♣ is more needed IMO to show the weak transfer, rather than the void slam try hand? This is more likely when using a weaker ranged no-trump, BUT we have assumed the 1nt was 15-17(18) when it is weaker I feel the likelihood of a west needing a pass to be a I give up or I have no more to say more likely and if so then a double needs to be penalty, the frequency of when we have a void vs when we need to decide to bid on, pass or penalise is I think greater than when we have a void in their suit. I haven't run the numbers that is just a gut feel!

Surely a double of 5♣ is penalties. If it isn't then how do you collect the 500/800/1100 when it's right? Pass and hope for partner to re-open? Does he do that when short or long in trumps? Making it way to hard IMO I think Opener could have made things easier by bidding 3♦ to show an accept of the transfer, not a minimum and at least 8 cards in ♦ & ♠. Given he didn't and maybe KQxx isn't enough with only Txxx trump, then 5♦ is a good bid and 5♥ HAS to be a cue, with slam interest which should have fitting cards in Diamonds. If the hand doesn't fit well opposite the slam try of 5♦ then sign off in 5♠. Given that info 5♠ should suggest a mild slam try and intimates that trump support, a Heart Control and Diamond cards aren't enough. I suggest it implies a loser in both minors and asks opener to bid 6 if he has solid 2nd round control of 1 and first of the other. That isn't the case here, so with the club void and the Solid 6 card trump suit opposite at least 3, then East should be bidding 6♦ or 6♠ I would bid ♠ to make partner play it being lead up to does not advantage my hand at all. 90% blame West 10% blame East IF 3♦ showed a ♠ fit and good ♦ cards, otherwise 100% West to blame.

Any room for a 4♦ FSJ showing heart support? I'd think it shows a 1444 (though why clubs first?) or 1345, 0445, 0346, 1336 type hand. I would use that and follow up with X and now partner should be able to know I have a better than minimum opener and that I was intending to make or go very close opposite his hand. Now partner is in a better place to bid on or pass for penalties. He has a very wide range of hands he can hold, hopefully I've given enough info that he can get it right, whatever right is.

Except that OP states it is forcing and better than most people play it! I have a monster, partner has a GF opposite my hand, I have no mechanism to find out about the clubs, which is a problem so I think I just want to bid 6 and apologise if it's off. Basically my KQ in trumps has to make up 1 loser, the void spade probably solves the 4th, 5th 6th etc round of spades. If he has the reds then my KH is worth so much more but I've no way to tell. 4NT undiscussed is probably Blackwood in Diamonds, with the possibility of bidding 6H (correctible to 6S later) 5C I'd take as a slam try in one of the majors, prepared to play 5 in the "wrong" one. What that would mean for a jump to 5H or 5S over 4D I have no idea.

1♦ - 3NT 13-15 balanced with 4+D no 4cM P Would be my first choice. South cannot "know" which suit is worst for us but being declarer with Kxx AQx and Qx in the side suits looks better than being dummy.

All I think 5♠ does is give N a chance to show the void (why would South bid 4nt if he has the void?) pass gives them all the room they need to use their best judgment so my best chance at forcing a guess and possibly a mistake is 6♠. Will the guess be right? I don't know but I am not 2nd guessing them if they bid over it.

Style of partners pre-empts really matters here. With Partner using a loose style, first seat white V red then I pass and pass again. Facing a more standard and predictable pre-empt (rule of 2 and 3) I re-double to show I thought 4♥ was making (2 Aces and the Qh + partners 7 tricks) and probably bid 5♥ over partners silence. Would you pass in his seat with a 2740 after partner doubles? I don't know. I think I should be disciplined but there is an argument for a bid - being void in their (assumed) fit, partner's likelihood of a spade trick (barring a ruff from North) and again the chance they might lead a club which gains me back the tempo. I try to stay passed once I've pre-empted and I'm not sure the reasons to bid are enough to offset that rule. 2 of partners tricks must come from outside hearts so if I push them on it's probably going to be doubled. My main worry is that he'll want a piece of 5♣ and by bidding I deny him, also neither can make at the 5 level and by bidding I turn a good score bad, worse if they find X.

1♠ 2♠ 3♣ (long suit trial) 3♦ Cue, shows clubs and 1st or 2nd round control of ♦'s but not a singleton or void 3♥* 4♣* 4♦* 4♠ Nothing to add denies heart k or singleton 5c* 5♦ Third round control, either HQx or Hx 7♠ * cues

Surely that could lead to players hesitating to STOP partner from leading a spade? So if I "know" a spade is wrong, hesitate and effectively bar a spade lead from pards, seems very flawed to me and I hope that's not how the law is looked at in practise. If you take an action based on the hesitation that is unethical, try to do what you would do whether partner took 2 seconds to pass or 3 minutes. His actions other than the bids he makes should be irrelevant in the decision process.