mck4711

I trust partner. He should have a huge hand. The only question is how to continue. I have already showed values in ♠, but K♣/ A♦ - IMO - are of more importance to p. I would skip 4♠, but CB on level 5: 5♣ or 5♦, depending on agreement (1st-round, mixed). P is short in ♠, meaning there is no risk that opps can take 2 quick-tricks in ♠.

Edit: Post deleted. Ahem, yes, I mixed here something totally up (thx for ur hint flameous). Obviously not a good idea to write something before having a wake-up-coffee...

A direct 4NT bid would have been Blackwood. I would interpret this delayed 4NT-bid as Unusual, ie. showing both minors.

X and then ♠. I am too strong for a direct overcall.

IMO this hand is too strong for a direct 4♠. In case you play in this sequence 4♦ as "fit-jump" - promising 4+ ♠, good ♦-suit and high offense-defense-ratio - then this would be my choice. Lacking this I would go for 4♥: slam interest, either with a strong hand or with ♠-support.

Thank you for your opinions. One more Q: you have (this is actually p's hand) ♠ AT87 ♥ QJ8 ♦ xx ♣ Kxxx what is your bid after the sequence (RHO starts): p - p - 3♠ - X p - ??

Bid of 1♥ just perfect. And also P after 2♠. Lets think what p would like to tell you (if it is not a bold overbid): First he showed with 2 ♥ a min-opening and 4-card support (with 3 he would/ could/ should have X). Now he pops up with 2NT?! To play 2NT after fit-confirmation in ♥ doesnt make sense. IMO there is one thing he might have had on his mind: If he has something like 4432 or 3442 or 4441 and a max within the context of his min-hand, he wants to compete (at least) on level 3 (and is maybe hoping for more if you have a perfectly matching hand). But this thought still doesnt work for 2 reasons: - In case you would have had more than minimum you would have acted differently after 2♠ - If he has any length in ♠ you are short in ♠, thats clear. If he has HCP in ♠ they are anyhow wasted. If he has nothing in ♠ why to tell the obvious. It just helps opps in case we are to defend against a ♠-contract. Edit (I forgot the last sentence): 2NT therefore doesnt make sense at all. He described his minimum-opening with 2H. And thats it. Full stop.

club tournament, first time partner, IMP, white RHO as third set opens with a preempt: ♠ - ♥ A9xxx ♦ KQ9x ♣ AJT8 p - p - 3♠ - X XX - p - p - ??? Hm, and now??? There are several options... What is your reasoning?

club tournament, first time partner, 5-major, IMP, none I am dealer and opening light, no interference of opps: ♠ AJx ♥ xxx ♦ KQJxxx ♣ T 1♦ - 1♥ 2♦ - 3♣ 3♥ - 3♠ ??? What now? What does 3♠ mean to you? What kind of hand do you give p?

penalty. 4+ cards in ♠ and 6+ HCP

Hand calls for creativity. There are several options: 3♣: IMO hand is too strong for 3♣ - though you may want to overlook ur stiff Q♦. 4♦: Only 3card-support, but very good ones. 2NT: stiff Q is disturbing 2♠: Only 3cards This hand is like "democracy": It is a bad political system, but the best out of the bad ones. I prefer 2♠.

I assume that shown bidding is our sequence, without interference of opps. IMO 3♦ is a gross underbid. After p has shown a weak opening and no fit, repeating your own suit shows 6+cards and is not forcing. Your p may pass. I think a better answer is 3♣ - FSF, and in this sequence GF. It gives p the opportunity to describe his hand once more: 3♦: 3card-support in ♦, meaning he has something like 5431 3♥: likely 5-5 in ♠ and ♥ and no ♦-support 3♠: no stopper in ♣, no ♦-support 3NT: stopper in ♣ Depending on his answer you can continue accordingly. Maybe your best spot is 3NT, maybe 6♦, maybe even a 5-2 fit in ♠ or ♥. EDIT: Just realized that it is mentioned 2 over 1 GF. In this case a prefer a simple 3NT. NT is played from right side and if p has nothing in ♣ I have good chances to take my tricks before opps can do.

I want to play at least play 4♠, and unless he has a super-light opening or all his HCP are in ♥ slam has good chances. IMO you have 3 choices: 2NT or 3NT: showing 4card-support, GF, you are taking the lead, checking about strength and distribution (in some systems 2NT is 2NT-Jacoby, in other systems 3NT has this meaning) 4♥: splinter (your hand is strong enough for a splinter), you are describing your hand and p can judge if slam is possible I dont like 3♣. Though it shows a strong hand with ♣, IMO 3♣ declines support for ♠. How do you want to tell p that you have perfect support for ♠ and that you are short in ♥. Edit: Some systems require that this jump (1♠ - 3♣) shows not more than one looser in ♣, with KJ I have 1,5. My personal choice on this hand: 4♥. Everything told in one bid.

non-vulnerable, IMP, SAYC, LHO dealer ♠ - ♥ KJ8 ♦ KJTx ♣ KQxxxx 1♠ - p - p - ? Question 1: What is your choice? Imagine you bid 2♣ and the bidding continues: 2♠ - p - p - ? Question 2a: What now? Question 2b: Do you treat X in this sequence as take/out (showing something like -346, otherwise first round X with eg -445) or penalty?

3♦ so-called fit-jump: Shows 4+trump-support and a good suit on its own. According to the author (Robson/ Segal: Partnership Bidding at Bridge, 1993) distribution is more important than strength, based on LOTT. The author calls it "the two way shot". Important term within this theory is ODR (offense defense ratio): The higher your offense strength in relation to your defense the more (higher/ more aggressive) you can (shall?) bid. 4♦ shows a hand with even more distributional features/ higher ODR. Bids basically remain the same if RHO bids something, eg. raise; but minor adoptions. You can download this book free from the internet as PDF. As a good complement I recommend Lawrence: Complete book on overcalls.