Curls77

Hi all What is the best, or proper way to find this grand slam in minor? We play pretty basic 2/1. EW are silent through out. IMPs [hv=pc=n&s=sjhadakt3ckqj9743&n=sa9hqj8dj98762ca8&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1dp2cp]266|200|2C is GF[/hv] Also, could South prefer to play in ♣ ? Thanks

Thanks all for the answers. I accept 3D critique, it's not a bid I'd normally do. But since p & me play different systems, and me being very inexperienced, I thought this was least of evils: I wasn't sure if p played splinters, I knew for sure he doesn't play minorwood, and I also knew he plays jumps as strong and that he'd read 3D as reverse kind of hand (in strength and in shape). I think he'd translate spade cue-bid from me as a stopper asking, and I wouldn't know what I’d do next if he would have it and bid NT. Would someone be kind enough to post how full correct auction would have been, should I have bid 2S ? Thanks again : )

I normally play simple 2/1, while partner plays 5Majors, it was maybe 2nd time we parded. In IMPS, the deal was: [hv=pc=n&s=st92hadqjt943cqt9&w=skqj763h9862d65c2&n=s8hkj4dak87cakj83&e=sa54hqt753d2c7654&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp1d1s3d3s4h4sdppp]399|300[/hv] I must admit I didn’t know for sure what partner’s 4H was (the most obvious control bid which he alerted as "cue"), but even if I did, what was I supposed to do not knowing that we had double fit? Should I bid 5C or 5D? Or simply jump to 6D? Pard says he expected 4NT RKC for ♦ from me, but I learned not to use 4N on minor fit, since often we can not sign off at 5th level in case we find out that we do not have enough controls for slam. Only later I realized that it was very unlikely my p would have 5H or 5S RKC answer, but still he could have a void; so I am not sure if RKC would be of any help. Thanks for your advices :)

I watched friends playing this hand, and it turned to be very controversial, everyone had different opinion. They were playing SAYC. [hv=pc=n&s=sq64hkj63dckqj876&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=1cp1d1h]133|200[/hv] How should opener re-evaluate his hand with void in pard's suit and HCP in enemy's suit, lack of aces and entries in own hand? Would opener's rebid here show some extras and deny holding minimum? [hv=d=s&v=e&b=3&a=1cp1d1h2c2h3hp3nppp]133|100[/hv] At the table opener decided to bid 2C. His partner holding ♠AT9 ♥xx ♦K7xxx ♣Axx, assuming p was showing 15+ with his free rebid, asked for heart stopper and it went as shown. Was he wrong to count own hand as GF?

Very nice post, ty all for helping us understand. I have question about doubles with balanced hands. For example, (p) - p - (1♦) - X (1N) - p - (p) - X Is this second X a takeout (to takeout from what?) or penalty oriented by a balanced hand (18-21) too strong to make direct 1NT overcall?

IMPS, all vulnerable, both pairs play SAYC [hv=pc=n&w=sa4hkqt62dcaqt952&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=1sp1n]133|200[/hv] They say "When the opponents have bid TWO suits, a cue bid of opener's suit promises the other two suits, while a cue bid of responder's suit is natural, showing an extremely good suit and a decent hand." How that changes when responder bids 1NT? And what is to be done if hand had 2 hcp less?

Thank you all for all those (different) answers and opinions ;) I do now see how and why X would be right choice on the first board, and I don't feel too big a chicken for 2D bid on the last. But, I still do not understand fully the second board.. Lets assume they did open directly 3c, so I couldn't pass and eventually balance later after the transfer done with 3D (which never crossed my mind - lack of experience). So if it goes: (3♣) 3♦ (X) 3♥ partner can choose to pass, raise D, bid 3N, redouble or freely bid new suit. This latest action, him being unlimited hand, seems so very forcing to me, how it is not? And what would his pass / raise / new suit mean if there was no double? Thanks for your help!

Hi everyone. I'd apreciate your comments/advice in bidding couple of hands. You have known partner, yet still in phase of making agreemenets within SAYC. It was an IMP table, against known (and better) opponents. You are East. Board 1 [hv=pc=n&w=sa3h652daqt72c863&e=st96hqj4dk943cakq&d=s&v=b&b=7&a=pp1s2dp3dppp]266|200[/hv] a) Should East make off-shape TO double, or 1NT overcall without stopper, or as I decided to do - make 4card overcall? b) in case 2D was ok, could West choose 2N to show spade stopper, or 2S to force auction to learn more of East hand rather than raising dimes? Board 2 [hv=pc=n&w=sj95haqjt964d9cqt&e=sq864h5dakq54cj73&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=2n3dd3hp3sppp]266|200[/hv] 2N was alerted as preempted clubs. In east seat i decided to overcall instead of X because i didnt have hearts; assuming 3D overcall was ok (was it?), what values should West have for free bid after X, and is 3H from him forcing being answer to double? Even if this auction was wrong, once 3s was bid, should West pass, or correct to 4h? Board 3 [hv=pc=n&w=sthakt3dt764cj852&e=sak984h4daq92ca64&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=pp1sp1np2dppp]266|200[/hv] a) Was East strong enough to make strong jump shift and bid 3D? How should auction look from there on? b) If 2D was correct call, should west bid 2h over 2d that would eventualy lead us to 3N? Thank you all : )

Maybe this was already explained, but I couldn't find it. Your partner in 1st seat opens 1NT. RHO overcalls. I would guess some of options (please correct me if I am wrong): a ) if they overcall for example 2C and you wanted to bid Stayman, you can double showing that was exactly what you'd bid if they didn't interfere. b ) they bid 2D and you planned to transfer to spades, so you simply bid 2H as if they didn't overcall at all. c ) this last situation is my problem.. what do you do if you wanted to bid Stayman and they bid 2D ? or you wanted to transfer to hearts and they bid 2S ? Thanks

Oh, i am sorry.. [hv=pc=n&s=s6h9876543d76ct82&w=sk7hakq2dk4ckj754&n=saqjt4hdaqt53cq93&e=s98532hjtdj982ca6&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=p1cd1s3hp4dppp]399|300[/hv]

ty both so much for quick and clear response : )) I made bad mistake thinking this would be a takeout double, too good for overcall, which my pard interpreted as hand short in clubs and 3+ in all other suits and made heart jump. We actually won points for being -1 in 4♦ contract. I'd like to know which side should have won the contract and in what spot? Thanks again for patience & help to us beginners.

Hello.. Please help me understand what would be best bid in this situation. Playing IMP pairs, EW are vulnerable, and you at N hold: ♠AQJT4 ♥- ♦AQT53 ♣Q93 Your partner S passes, and W opens with 1♣. Thanks