jschafer

♠KT8 ♥QJ8 ♦853 ♣J932 ------------- ------------- ♠- ♥A97 ♦AKJ76 ♣KT865 Dealer: East East opens 1♠, followed by your Double and a 4♠ bid by West. It is an individual tournament with a partner you have never seen before so you decide to take no chances and bid 5♦.Your opponents are strong players and lead a 4th best ♠4. Certainly not the best auction but right now the biggest problem seems to be making this rather shaky contract. How do you proceed?

[hv=pc=n&s=sahak964dj9432ck8&n=sk72ht32dakcj5432&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1hp3c(10-11%5B12%5D%203%21h%2C%20%5B8%5D9-10%204%21h)p4hppp]266|200[/hv] ♠3 is led, 3/5 leads. IMPs.

It seems likely you will either have an 8-card ♠ fit or a ♦ weakness on this hand, perhaps both. So I quite like the idea of raising ♠s on this hand because ♠ rates to do well either way. Bidding 2♠ also makes it more likely partner will invite with borderline hands since he 'knows' about our ♠ fit, which is a good thing given that this hand is a maximum.

[hv=pc=n&s=sakthqj4daq982ca6&n=sq863ha9dkjcq9752]133|200|[/hv] ♦ lead versus 6NT.

So let me get this straight, you chastise me for opening 1NT because it is too weak. Yet you are bidding to the 3-level on the same hand on a 5card suit which partner has denied support for? I guess if that is what you prefer it is hard to argue with.

And over 2♦ false preference you would pass? Doesn't seem like the best ♦ suit to be playing in 4-2 or 4-3 fits. How is a rebid not relevant to an opening bid just because it does not matter on one hand? 1NT may not describe the shape perfectly but at least it gets the strength accross at a low level and without distorting my minor length.

So what was your plan over a 1♥ response?

I would open 1NT with the North hand, it is a pretty good 14-count. If it did go 1m-(2♥) then 3♦ seems like a better bid make, leaving both 3NT and slam as possible contracts.

♥ to the Queen is my line. I will trust LHO's signal for ♥s.

Well that is how I played it and was wondering if that is better than a ♠ hook (the line my p suggested). It looks quite hard for RHO to return a ♠ when he gets in.

West plays small and East the T.

6♣ would have asked for ♣Q, not a suggestion to play.

[hv=pc=n&s=st5haq5dakqjcj876&n=saj9h96d976caq432&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=p1cp1dp2dp4dp4sp4np5hp6dppp]266|200[/hv] ♦T is led, East playing the 4. IMPs. When you play the ♣J:

I disagree with the people saying 5♦ cannot be a slam try. It is completely reasonable to sign off in 3NT (with a near slam invite) under the assumption you do not have a ♠ fit; while at the same time making a move for slam when there is a ♠ fit after all.

What was the layout?

I would be happy with 9 tricks when the opponents have 5 winners off the top, regardless of the scoring method. I certainly do not expect 3♠= to be an average board.

[hv=pc=n&s=skq8htdaqj6cjt742&w=st43hqj652d52c653&n=sj752hak743dkcak9&e=sa96h98dt98743cq8]399|300[/hv] I'm confused, why would the above layout not be possible?

I agree with the above post.

Thanks for the quick reply!

During the play, dummy is allowed to ask declarer if he has none left in a suit when he shows out. Can one defender ask another defender or declarer? Can declarer ask a defender? Thanks!

S̶h̶e̶ ̶i̶s̶ ̶c̶l̶e̶a̶r̶l̶y̶ ̶w̶r̶o̶n̶g̶ West is clearly wrong here.

I think the North hand is an easy pass over the Double but then again I would never Double with the South hand. When my partner says he can beat a contract I usually don't try to second-guess that decision.

Either I'm going crazy or it used to be there and got moved.

I wouldn't open 1NT and wouldn't value the South hand worth a slam try over 1NT. When South makes a slam try I think North should make a move given that he has denied nice ♦ support with 3♣. Both North and South deserve some blame for their bidding but only North for missing the slam. My 2/1 auction would have been something like: 1♥-2♦ 2NT-3NT 4NT-6♦

[hv=pc=n&s=sakt62ha98762dqc9&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1h2dp3n]133|200[/hv] MPs against strong opponents, do you make another move?