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[hv=d=w&v=n&n=skt96hkt7dk96cj97&w=sq53haq96dt743ca6&e=sa72hj8432d52c852&s=sj84h5daqj8ckqt43]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 Pass  Pass  Pass  1

 Pass  1    Pass  2

 Pass  2NT   Pass  3

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

Hi can you tell me what you think of 1!D opening

 

and what you think of my decision not to bid 2 spades , but I chose to bis 2 clubs

 

and what you thought of my 3 spade bid please

 

and anything you think is rellevant

 

thanks

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1 is fine. Personally I'd have opened it 1.

 

I think it's become more or less standard nowadays to raise to 2 on this hand rather than rebidding in clubs. Bidding 2 and then supporting spades would show a stronger hand. That means, your 3 bid here should have been forcing!

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I think it's become more or less standard nowadays to raise to 2 on this hand rather than rebidding in clubs.

You don't visit these forums enough :)

 

1+2 is ok, 1+2 is ok since the suit is good, for beginners I would recomend just stick to 1+2 even if the is bad. It saves more headaches.

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I like 1. I would have opened 1.

 

About the 2: I would've raised to 2 IF and only if partner would possibly expect a raise on 3 cards. Otherwise, 2. I'm not in love with the 2NT bid. 2 is enough in my opinion.

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I'd bid 1m-1-2.

 

Whatever minor you open, I can agree with since they're both good and s are rebiddable. However, after a 1 bid from partner, 2 is imo much better than showing your minor suit holding.

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Opening 1 instead of the normal 1 wasn't made on the purpose to rebid 2 ?

 

So 2 seems a coherent rebid

 

But, what is the problem with 1 opening and 2 rebid over 1M response ?

 

I will add that I completely disagree with North 2NT ! The game is very unlikely and NS are white, so be happy with a partial contract

 

I would bid 2 over 2, my partner described a 54+ minor

 

But what is wrong about that good (old fashioned perhaps) sequence :

 

1-1-2-PASS follow by 3 over the likely balancing in ?

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I opened 1 diamond with the intent purpose of bidding 2!C as a planned rebid, I did not like 1nt as a rebid as I am not balanced

 

(Correct me if I am wrong here) diamond first then 2C has to be more informative, than club and 2 club rebid, or will this lead me to problems (as I may have lied about length in suit

 

I do have an agreement to support with 3, with my p for a 2 spade bid, but it needs to be a good 3 (so that sort of ruled that out)

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When supporting with three cards, the important thing (though not obligatory, according to agreements) is to have a shortage somewhere, so that ruffs can be taken in your hand. Trump quality is also nice, but less so.

 

Personally I don't like the style of opening 1 on this sort of hands. It makes it harder for partner to judge where the hand will best play. Do those who play it drop false preference on the auction 1D - 1M - 2C - ?

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Oh dear, I agree completely with Roland again....

 

As a side point, your 3S bid should be forcing. But accordingly it shows a better hand - something too good to raise 1S to 2, say

 

AJx

x

AKxxx

KQ10x

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I opened 1 diamond with the intent purpose of bidding 2!C as a planned rebid, I did not like 1nt as a rebid as I am not balanced

 

(Correct me if I am wrong here) diamond first then 2C has to be more informative, than club and 2 club rebid, or will this lead me to problems (as I may have lied about length in suit

 

I do have an agreement to support with 3, with my p for a 2 spade bid, but it needs to be a good 3 (so that sort of ruled that out)

I would open 1C and plan to rebid 2C.

 

Reason is I expect partner to either respond

1D with D suit,or 1M then bid D over my 2C

with 5M-4D holding.

 

Guess it's a matter of style and agreements.

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Hi,

 

I dont like 1D, and I would also not have raised 1S to

2S, but I can understand, why this is an valid option.

 

But if you open 1D, then raise to 2S, because, you

will most likely bid 2S in the 3rd round anyway, or

what is your plan, when partner shows preference

for diamonds?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I don't like North's final pass. 3 is forcing, I think. Presumably she (he?) regretted the somewhat aggressive 2NT bid.

 

1 is ok. I prefer to open 1 with this shape unless the clubs are very bad and I can't rebid an off-shape 1NT due to partnership agreements. This is something to discuss with p, of course.

 

As others have said, you should raise spades immediately.

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1 is ok. I prefer to open 1 with this shape unless the clubs are very bad and I can't rebid an off-shape 1NT due to partnership agreements. This is something to discuss with p, of course.

 

As others have said, you should raise spades immediately.

I have to disagree with you,I don't think

1D is ok on this hand.

 

You start off the communication with partner

misinforming him about your hand,

remember it's not all about rebid,it's also

a partner and a final contract to consider.

 

:)

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I prefer 1 to 1 but I'm perfectly ok with 1 just a matter of style.

2 is fine to me I would hate raising with Jxx

3 is too much,I don't like the bid, I think 2 was more than enough.

I mentioned somewhere I also think it's a matter

of style,but since I would open 1D with 4-4 minor

on this strength,I guess I "have" to open 1C with

4-5 to make a difference?

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I prefer 1 to 1 but I'm perfectly ok with 1 just a matter of style.

2 is fine to me I would hate raising with Jxx

3 is too much,I don't like the bid,  I think 2 was more than enough.

I mentioned somewhere I also think it's a matter

of style,but since I would open 1D with 4-4 minor

on this strength,I guess I "have" to open 1C with

4-5 to make a difference?

The trend I'm seeing among experts is to open 1 with 4-4 in the minors or 4-5 as well. As I said it's a matter of style and I see a trend in style that says that opening 1 with 4 clubs or 5 when you have 4 diamonds is fashionable.

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