plaur Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Playing strict SAYC and the bidding goes 1♦ pass 1♠ 2♥? With a balanced hand and two spades how much do you need to bid 2NT here? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Playing "strict SAYC" let's assume partner has a useful 7HCP.That means with 18 hcp we bid 3nt.You can do math now for 2nt bids. Of course if playing "junky 2/1" you need more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Playing "strict SAYC" let's assume partner has a useful 7HCP.That means with 18 hcp we bid 3nt.You can do math now for 2nt bids. Of course if playing "junky 2/1" you need more. Um no Mike!With 15-17 we would have opened 1N. With 12-14 we pass the 2H bid. Therefore a 2NT bid shows 18-19. This leaves 3NT. 3NT after intervention could be either 19 to a bad 20, which would make your 2N rebid 18. However better still would be to play the 3NT bid in competition as a solid opened suit and a stopper in the overcalled suit - on the given auction something akin to:xxKxAKQJxxxxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Yep, that's how I would play it too. Some might play Good-Bad here, so that 2NT is not available for the 18-19 balanced hands. In that case you would have to rebid 3NT in this auction. I would not recommend GB-2NT to beginners or intermediate players though, I find it a tough convention. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 17+-19 support dbls, if played, applyotherwise you can have another meaning of dbl such as an unbalanced 15-17 unsuitable to open 1NT but without the type of hand that might warrant supporting spades.But, if P is on a 5 or 6-count, do you have enough to contract for 8 tricks with no trumps if you have a minimum hand? I don't believe so. So one would pass after 2H as P will still (hopefully) have another opportunity to speak. P will be able to (will likely try real hard to) re-open to show more than a minimum if 2H-p-p comes back to him/her. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Agree with Ron. I have nothing against support doubles and Good-Bad 2NT, but this was a SAYC question raised in the B/I-forum. So 2NT simply shows that you have a hand to rebid 2NT, whether there is intervension or not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
plaur Posted August 1, 2005 Author Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Thanks. 18-19 was what I expected but I have learned that I dont know SAYC as well as i thought. I bid 4 spades over 2 NT withQ10xxxxxxAKxxx and p tabled 13 hcp - made 8.5 imps for 10 tricks :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Playing strict SAYC and the bidding goes 1♦ pass 1♠ 2♥? With a balanced hand and two spades how much do you need to bid 2NT here? And if the bidding did go:1♥-(p)-1♠-(2♦) With 5card ♥ and 15-17 pts you open 1♥. What is 2NT now? Still 18-19 or 15-17? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
coyot Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Keep 1x-1y-3NT (even over interference) as a sort of gambling - solid opening 6+suit, stopper in overcall if any, slight reserve). Stick to system point-range rebid (2NT with 18-19 or as you play it). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 Playing strict SAYC and the bidding goes 1♦ pass 1♠ 2♥? With a balanced hand and two spades how much do you need to bid 2NT here? And if the bidding did go:1♥-(p)-1♠-(2♦) With 5card ♥ and 15-17 pts you open 1♥. What is 2NT now? Still 18-19 or 15-17? Why on earth would you open 1H if you held 5H in a 5332 shape with 15-17? Surely that is a 1NT opening! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 IF you opened 1♥, tou would pass with 15-17 adn bid 2NT with 18+ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted August 1, 2005 Report Share Posted August 1, 2005 With 5card ♥ and 15-17 pts you open 1♥. What is 2NT now? Still 18-19 or 15-17? You would have to choose between an under-bid of pass or 2♠ (but maybe your lack of shape and 4-card-support compensates your extra HCPs), or a stretchy 2NT with 17 HCPs, and a penalty-oriented double (with a doubleton in partner's suit) In any case: an opening in a suit denies a ballanced hand with the strength of a notrump opening. So if you open 1♥ with a 5332 in that range, you cannot describe you hand as ballanced. You'll have to improvise, then. In an uncontested autction, you may have to rebid a 3-card clubs or diamonds, for example. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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