haver Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 Nobody vuln. u deal. You hand is:KQJA95386QJ65 Bidding goes:1Cl - P - 1D - P - 1H - P - 2 Sp Your turn Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 I have no idea what 2♠ means but anyway, I must probably bid 2NT. What's the problem, by the way? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
scoob Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 3♠ for me Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 A significant number of players use 2♠ as fourth suit forcing, denying 4 ♠. 1♠ is natural and forcing for one round. I have never understood the benefits of this method, but I suspect that the 2♠ bidder belongs to that group. So I bid 2N... the bid I would make no matter what I thought partner really meant: how can I lose the post-mortem with 2N? :unsure: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 A significant number of players use 2♠ as fourth suit forcing, denying 4 ♠. 1♠ is natural and forcing for one round. I have never understood the benefits of this method The benefits are that 1♠ is always natural and forcing for one round, and not ambiguous as in 4th suit. Accordingly, 2♠ is also only one-way: 4th suit without four spades. I am flexible, I play whatever partner is comfortable with. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 A significant number of players use 2♠ as fourth suit forcing, denying 4 ♠. 1♠ is natural and forcing for one round. I have never understood the benefits of this method The benefits are that 1♠ is always natural and forcing for one round, and not ambiguous as in 4th suit. Accordingly, 2♠ is also only one-way: 4th suit without four spades. I am flexible, I play whatever partner is comfortable with. Roland I would bid 2NT.I have a minimum hand with spade stoppers, partner bid the 4th suit albeit via a jump (intermediate 6-3 death hand?), so I feel my first responsibility is to indicate whether or not I have spades stopped. Partner will likely/ hopefully clarify what the heck he meant by his 2S bid with his next bid. (Roland. You are always the "voice" of reason and logic on this site. So glad you post so often: I learn a lot from you. Thanks) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 I guess I would have opened 1NT (12-14)Having opened 1C I guess I would have rebid 1NT (12-14)Having rebid 1H I guess I would next rebid 2NTHopefully I intend eventually to get across the balanced nature of my hand :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheoKole Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 2NT Partner has probably just used 4th suit forcing and is looking for a Spade stopper from you in order to play in NT. 2 NT describes your hand as a minimum opener with spades stopped. You will probably play in 3NT, but if partner is strong he may start cue-bidding. :P Cheers Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 2NT and then we bid 3♠ if that doesn't show 3-4-2-4 then I'm Mary Poppins. What's the problem with this hand? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 i'd have opened 1nt or surely have rebid 1nt.. on the given bidding, i'd bid 2nt now but only cause i don't know what 2S means <_< ... if he's 5/6 or something, he'll let me know Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 26, 2005 Report Share Posted July 26, 2005 3♠ for me This would show a 4405 or maybe a 4414 shape, certainly not a flat hand. There is a good argument for bidding 1NT rather than 1H on this balanced shape - it is far more descriptive. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bearmum Posted July 27, 2005 Report Share Posted July 27, 2005 Nobody vuln. u deal. You hand is:KQJA95386QJ65 Bidding goes:1Cl - P - 1D - P - 1H - P - 2 Sp Your turnGuess you were playing 15-17 NT? (cos I would have opened it 1NT (13-15) ) So having opened it 1♣ I would have bid 1NT not 1♥ :) However having bid 1♥ I will now bid 2NT (showing a flat hand less than 15) and ♠s stopped :) Partner is now in control of the auction with a monster hand it's his responsibility to bid on towards slam <_< OR just bid game :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted July 27, 2005 Report Share Posted July 27, 2005 2 NT, wtp? assuming 2S is 4th suit. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted July 27, 2005 Report Share Posted July 27, 2005 Assuming 2♠ is FSGF, I bid 3NT to show that I am minimum with ♠ doubly stopped and no extra length anywhere. 2NT would show either extras or doubt as to strain. I would have rebid 1NT instead of 1♥. I would have preferred to have been able to open 1NT instead of 1♣. Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted July 27, 2005 Report Share Posted July 27, 2005 easy 2NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
scoob Posted July 28, 2005 Report Share Posted July 28, 2005 this must be why i don't play 4SF. i would have taken 1♠ as such, and a jump showing a strong 6-5. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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