Do you balance?

[kgr]

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=skj9xhatxxdxxcqxx]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

MP's; Vul/NV

Bidding starting with you:

Pass-(1S)-Pass-(Pass)

?

 

This is MP's. (What) do you bid?

Would you make an other call if the vulnerability would be different?

[whereagles]

Pass. Too many spades make pard short in that suit. If he didn't double, then he's weakish. Opps have landed on the wrong contract (diams is their suit), so let them go down in peace :angry:

[helene_t]

Pass. Maybe 1NT at white vs white. I assume opponents play five-card majors. If they play fours, it's a clear pass under all conditions.

[joker_gib]

1NT

 

There are a lot of hands where you will have 1NT or more and I must beat 1♠ by two in order to make more than +90 .

 

I can't understand a pass here, sorry

 

Alain

[cherdano]

1NT

 

There are a lot of hands where you will have 1NT or more and I must beat 1♠ by two in order to make more than +90 .

 

I can't understand a pass here, sorry

I don't know what is right but the point of pass is of course that there are many hands where you go down in 1NT. Especially since your hand may be worth only 1-2 trick in NT if opener has all the spade goodies behind you.

 

Arend

[Finch]

1NT.

 

Only last week my partner passed in first seat, vul against not, holding K9x Kx KJx Jxxxx then protected 1S with 1NT. We went for 1400 (should have been 1100 but it's possible the hand wasn't played with full attention).

 

Doesn't stop me doing it again.

[joker_gib]

1NT

 

There are a lot of hands where you will have 1NT or more and I must beat 1♠ by two in order to make more than +90 .

 

I can't understand a pass here, sorry

I don't know what is right but the point of pass is of course that there are many hands where you go down in 1NT. Especially since your hand may be worth only 1-2 trick in NT if opener has all the spade goodies behind you.

 

Arend

You are right, Arend, in the sense that I've been a little too fast to say "I can't understand a pass"

 

but I still think that, in the long run, there is more to lose with pass than with 1NT

 

Alain

[helene_t]

I think 1NT will win only when you make it while 1♠ is down only one and they don't take 1NT out with 2♦. I can immagine much more scenaria in which "pass" is winning.

[mike777]

Pass but willing to listen and learn. MY partner said 20 years ago I was not good enough to ever balance, ever, so....

[luis]

1NT I don't care about what happens I won't let them play 1s at MPs.

[HeartA]

Pass. There are cases I have to let opps play 1-level contract, and this is one of them.

 

To balance with such a hand only helps opps find better fit. And the ♠ finesse will work for them.

[luis]

Pass. There are cases I have to let opps play 1-level contract, and this is one of them.

 

To balance with such a hand only helps opps find better fit. And the ♠ finesse will work for them.

I accept the reasons to pass but when was the last time that they played 1♠ against you at MPs and it was a good result for your side?

[the hog]

Pass.  There are cases I have to let opps play 1-level contract, and this is one of them.

 

To balance with such a hand only helps opps find better fit.  And the ♠ finesse will work for them.

I accept the reasons to pass but when was the last time that they played 1♠ against you at MPs and it was a good result for your side?

Last night, when I passed out 1S with a similar hand and they were cold for 6D!!

Imps, not match points though. (Our partners bid 5D).

[pclayton]

Pass.

 

Pard either has a weak hand with 2 or less spades or a strong hand with 3 or more hearts. Guess which gives us the best chance foR a plus?

 

If we are exactly +50 defending 1S vs +90 in 1NT then I'm wrong. Otherwise I like my chances.

[P_Marlowe]

1 NT.

 

Marlowe

[kgr]

Dealer: South Vul: N/S Scoring: MP

♠ KJ9x ♥ ATxx ♦ xx ♣ Qxx

 

MP's; Vul/NV

Bidding starting with you:

Pass-(1S)-Pass-(Pass)

?

 

This is MP's. (What) do you bid?

Would you make an other call if the vulnerability would be different?

I did bid 1NT. At MP's I just don't like to let opps play at 1-level. This time Pass would have been better. Opener had 5-card S and 5-card D and the complete

Bidding was:

Pass-(1S)-Pass-(Pass)

1NT-(2D)-All pass

 

RHO (opener's partner) did have 2-card S and 3-card D.

1S would have gone -1 and 2D made.

 

- Looking at the answers it looks like a 'balance' between 1NT and Pass. (Still I'm in good company - Luis, Frances - with 1NT...only mention this to defend my bid :o )

- I suppose Pass after 2D is straightforward or do you consider 2H/DBL? ...And would DBL be take-out or penalty here?

- I suppose pass after 1S is straightforward at IMP's? Or would you still consider 1NT.

 

Thanks,

Koen

[Finch]

- I suppose pass after 1S is straightforward at IMP's? Or would you still consider 1NT.

 

Thanks,

Koen

I would still consider 1NT, though I imagine I would pass (i believe my partner Jeffrey would bid 1NT).

 

At imps, conceding 2D rather than beating 1S or going two off for -200 rather than conceding 110 is much less important, and you could still have game on.

[joker_gib]

Partner can still have a hand with 3 spades and points ! (not suitable to any action)

 

So game is still possible and I would also bid 1NT at imp's

 

Alain

[Chamaco]

IMO,

 

a. 1NT is ok

 

b. At MP I would balance vs 2D. In the specific sequence, DBL cannot be penalty (the doubler is a passed hand), so it must be takeout with tolerance for the unbid suits and more or less 11 hcp

[pclayton]

The subsequent double would be takeout by the 1N bidder, although a double by your pard could be played as penalty although I prefer it also to be T.O..

 

I don't know that my pass is correct or that this results vindicates the passers but I avoid platitudes like "you can't get a good MP result by passing out 1S".

 

A pull to 2D is certainly a pitfall to bidding though. I will say my partner Brian who will balance on a 3 card suit would also pass here.

[Winstonm]

<!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> South </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> N/S </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> KJ9x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> ATxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> Qxx </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end -->

 

MP's; Vul/NV

Bidding starting with you:

Pass-(1S)-Pass-(Pass)

?

 

This is MP's. (What) do you bid?

Would you make an other call if the vulnerability would be different?

I did bid 1NT. At MP's I just don't like to let opps play at 1-level. This time Pass would have been better. Opener had 5-card S and 5-card D and the complete

Bidding was:

Pass-(1S)-Pass-(Pass)

1NT-(2D)-All pass

 

RHO (opener's partner) did have 2-card S and 3-card D.

1S would have gone -1 and 2D made.

 

- Looking at the answers it looks like a 'balance' between 1NT and Pass. (Still I'm in good company - Luis, Frances - with 1NT...only mention this to defend my bid :rolleyes: )

- I suppose Pass after 2D is straightforward or do you consider 2H/DBL? ...And would DBL be take-out or penalty here?

- I suppose pass after 1S is straightforward at IMP's? Or would you still consider 1NT.

 

Thanks,

Koen

I'm a 1N bidder here too at MP. 1S without a guarantee of a set is just a lousy score most of the time. What I don't understand is where partner was in this auction. I've announced 10-14, opener has not shown great strength with 2D, and LHO has nothing. Partner has to hold either 4 hearts or 5 clubs on this hand yet was to content to play 2D. At MPs, I believe you have to fight harder than this at the 1 and 2 levels. When partner bids 2H over 2D, you don't take it too seriously and you don't fault him if he's made the bid on A9xx. After all, it's MPs so we are concerned only about frequency of gain. -1100 and -90 are the same if we are on for +110.

 

WinstonM

[Fluffy]

I am used of playing MPs, and I would bid 1NT without a single doubt, then think about next round of bidding.

 

At IMPs the problem about reopining is opponent's finding a game normally, but my ♠ holding makes it unlikelly, I think I would reopen as well.

[Double !]

1NT

 

Indulge a less-than-expurt opinion on this matter, but I think an important issue has been omitted from the discussion (or I missed it--you know, ADHD)

 

Specifically, an important issue is how your partnership plays 2-level overcalls, especially vulnerable (aka: "aware"). There are a lot of opening-type hands (or close to it) that partner can be sitting with over there that didn't warrant immediate action. In such cases, P is expecting you to take some action in the balancing seat unless the bidding makes it clear that partner can't have much (such as P being a passed hand). OK, so passing kept the opps out of slam (this time). Let me know the next time the opps pass out at the 1-level when they have a slam. If you're not taking action with these hands, i believe that you are putting a lot of pressure on partner to overcall with very sketchy hands including the 13 pt 5332 hand. If that's your style, then go for it. OTOH, if you play light or risky 2-level overcalls, then the loss-gain frequency might shift. But, one hand does not a policy make.

[civill]

Balance for the ♠ suit.