Jump to content

Game going hand but lacking in bidding space


Recommended Posts

Ideally I would have a thorough discussion on bids and sequences in competitive situations but given I am only playing with this partner in one event I'm not sure it is worth the time and effort to go into in depth discussion. Yesterday we only got 49% but that was mostly self inflicted, neither of us were at our best, and it didn't help that it took until round seven out of eight before I got to declare.

<snip>

In depth discussion is not needed, it is enough to focus on

#1.1 learning to know each others style, does he regular view glasses half full / half empty

#1.2 preempt style

#1.3 lead style, does he like aggressive / passive leads

If I remember it right, DavidKok is a vocal proponent of aggressive leads, I prefer passive leads, for me, it is not even close.

If you know the style, you know, that your chances finding something / nothing in the suit lead are higher or lower than usual.

#1.4 How disciplined he is with agreements.

#2.0 carding

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I'm a vocal proponent of aggressive bidding. The percentage lead depends fully on the auction and my hand. That being said I do think people lead a trump too often.

 

I recently went over most of Robson & Segal with my current partner. Knowing that we are on the same page (sometimes literally) in competitive situations helps a great deal with bidding. Knowing your partner's style is important and relevant, and thorough discussion is very time consuming. In general I'm in favour of detailed discussions, but knowing your partner's style is a reasonable substitute at far lower effort.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Also important, before starting indepth discussion:

 

#1 One needs to be sure, that one likes to play with the person in a regular fashion

#2 That the goals / reasons for playing Bridge are compatible

 

There is live besides playing Bridge, i.e. if you invest time for indepth, make sure as good as you can,

it is not wasted from the start.

  • Upvote 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

In general I'm in favour of detailed discussions, but knowing your partner's style is a reasonable substitute at far lower effort.

 

I found out one useful thing, when the auction goes 1m - 1X - 1M she could be 4-4 with a weak NT hand. I found that out after the auction 1 - 1 - 1 when I put her back to 2 with Jx and she played in a 4-2 fit for a bottom. That was entirely my fault as I should have bid 1NT instead with my 8 HCP almost entirely in the club suit.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

The answer to this depends on how the pair plays X and 2NT. This is why the agreements are important. Without some basic agreements, competitive auctions can easily turn into more or less random guesses.

With no sophisticated agreements, X is a support double , 2NT is 18-19

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I found out one useful thing, when the auction goes 1m - 1X - 1M she could be 4-4 with a weak NT hand. I found that out after the auction 1 - 1 - 1 when I put her back to 2 with Jx and she played in a 4-2 fit for a bottom. That was entirely my fault as I should have bid 1NT instead with my 8 HCP almost entirely in the club suit.

This sounds like a playable,but old fashioned style.

Another style think, which is quite frequent: at which strength is partner making a T/O versus bidding his 5 card major.

This leads to upperbounds of overcalls.

How much liberties are taken, when making a T/O, when facing a passed hand, is it still full value, or could it be lighter?

 

less frequent, but still coming up a reasonable number of times: Opening at the 1 level vs. going through an artificial strong

2C opener (I am assuming you play 2C as strong).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

This sounds like a playable,but old fashioned style.

Slightly surprised to hear this specifically from you - is it not the currently preferred style in Germany? The truth is that 1 - 1 -- 1 can be 4-4 in the vast majority of natural systems in the world, not necessarily as a Weak NT but almost always as a 4144.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Slightly surprised to hear this specifically from you - is it not the currently preferred style in Germany? The truth is that 1 - 1 -- 1 can be 4-4 in the vast majority of natural systems in the world, not necessarily as a Weak NT but almost always as a 4144.

Even in Germany Walsh Style has arrived, but ... I only play a limited set of events, and the style certainly is common enough.

Weak NT is also on the rise.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Even in Germany Walsh Style has arrived, but ... I only play a limited set of events, and the style certainly is common enough.

Weak NT is also on the rise.

As far as I'm aware Walsh style only refers to 1 - 1 auctions, and is quite a simple idea since you'll never miss a major fit.

 

Bypassing 1 with a balanced hand after 1 - 1 is a different kettle of fish, since you'll miss a 4-4 fit if responder is weak - Kit Woolsey has argued if playing MPs you're better off bidding 1, but if IMPs then 1NT. So with AL78 playing MP I don't think it's old fashioned at all.

  • Upvote 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Slightly surprised to hear this specifically from you - is it not the currently preferred style in Germany? The truth is that 1 - 1 -- 1 can be 4-4 in the vast majority of natural systems in the world, not necessarily as a Weak NT but almost always as a 4144.

Certainly would be 4-4 to the vast majority of Italians.

 

 

Bypassing 1 with a balanced hand after 1 - 1 is a different kettle of fish, since you'll miss a 4-4 fit if responder is weak - Kit Woolsey has argued if playing MPs you're better off bidding 1, but if IMPs then 1NT. So with AL78 playing MP I don't think it's old fashioned at all.

I have seen US material (even for beginners, IIRC) advocating this bypass, which is undoubtedly playable and has the advantage of staking and rightsiding the NT high ground. Still not sure it is worth it at MP, and I prefer to know whether opener has spades before I bid XYZ.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If you play XYZ and are not going to pass 1NT I don't see much of an issue with bypassing the spades. You lose on the hands where it goes 1-1; 1NT-P on your table while 1-1; 1-2; P is superior.

The problem is a much smaller issue over 1, where modern systems can solve this problem with the extra step of bidding space before it comes up (e.g. transfers). Another small win for unbalanced diamond, balanced club.

As an aside in a Precision context I've been told (and agree) that it makes a lot more sense to rebid 1 with four(+) spades on 1*-1 always, since even if you bypass spades with an unbalanced hand the 1 rebid doesn't promise diamond length. So you may as well give up entirely and agree that it just shows spades.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

As far as I'm aware Walsh style only refers to 1 - 1 auctions, and is quite a simple idea since you'll never miss a major fit.

 

Bypassing 1 with a balanced hand after 1 - 1 is a different kettle of fish, since you'll miss a 4-4 fit if responder is weak - Kit Woolsey has argued if playing MPs you're better off bidding 1, but if IMPs then 1NT. So with AL78 playing MP I don't think it's old fashioned at all.

My impression was, that opener that the style tries to clarify his shape type (bal. / unbal) with his 2nd bid was the modern way.

I think it makes sense, and I dont see, why I should only do it only after a 1C opening bid.

 

Seems my impression was wrong, happens.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

As far as I'm aware Walsh style only refers to 1 - 1 auctions, and is quite a simple idea since you'll never miss a major fit.

 

Bypassing 1 with a balanced hand after 1 - 1 is a different kettle of fish, since you'll miss a 4-4 fit if responder is weak - Kit Woolsey has argued if playing MPs you're better off bidding 1, but if IMPs then 1NT. So with AL78 playing MP I don't think it's old fashioned at all.

My impression was, that opener that the style tries to clarify his shape type (bal. / unbal) with his 2nd bid was the modern way.

I think it makes sense (*), and I dont see, why I should only do it only after a 1C opening bid.

 

Seems my impression was wrong, happens.

 

(*) I prefer streamlined agreements, even, if the streamlining may cost me a little bit.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...