harikannan Posted December 21, 2022 Report Share Posted December 21, 2022 Opps silent throughout, i opened 1d, partner responded 1s. I rebid 3h (splinter). What is the difference between 3s and 4s rebids by partner here? Is 3s forcing, or shows wasted values in hearts and minimum original response; therefore, passable? Thanks in advance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted December 21, 2022 Report Share Posted December 21, 2022 I’m afraid that the answer is: it depends It may sound trite but: if the splinter was forcing to game, then 3S is forcing If, otoh, the splitter was invitational or invitational + then 3S is an offer to play there In either case, 4S over 3H denies any slam interest…with slam interest, responder cuebids What he holds for 4S depends on whether 3H was game force Fwiw I like 3H to be invitational or better, reserving 4H to show specifically a void. This isn’t mainstream, but it isn’t rare either. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LBengtsson Posted December 21, 2022 Report Share Posted December 21, 2022 The idea of a splinter being forcing to game is not always a good idea imo. Responder in response to a 1m opening bid will especially in the 2/1 system bid 1♥ or 1♠ with the minimum of values to try to improve the contract, though usually if they have bid 1M with less strength, the suit will be five cards such as ♥/♠Kxxxx or QJxxx. Though a 9 card fit will be better than a 8 card one, obviously. If the 1M response has been made on something like ♠Axxx ♥Qxx ♦xxx ♣xxx then you are going to need plenty of good cards from opener to fill the gaps and make 4M a viable contract, so again having a splinter as invitational seems preferable. I think that you also have to closely define what hands (HCPs, distributional points and hand shapes) opener rebids a splinter with also. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
apollo1201 Posted December 21, 2022 Report Share Posted December 21, 2022 I think that you also have to closely define what hands (HCPs, distributional points and hand shapes) opener rebids a splinter with also.And also what hands bid 1m - 1M - 3M (5422’s around strong NT opening strength? flat ugly 18’s that should have been downgraded to a 1NT opening?) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
harikannan Posted December 22, 2022 Author Report Share Posted December 22, 2022 Thanks first. My splinter meant singleton and 19-21 total points (gib description) since i was playing arena challenge. I passed 3s and missed game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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