1D 2N // 3C?

[paulsim]

Hi all

 

1D.....2N

3C?

 

 

What would be consodered standard:

Pass/correct or forcing?

 

 

Thank you

Kind Regards,

Paul_S

[DavidKok]

I think forcing is standard, though a case could be made for either option (especially since responder's failure to bid 1M or 2♦ inverted may mark them with club length, depending on agreements).

[apollo1201]

It looks NF but it is more useful to have it forcing, aiming for 3NT or 5m. Although the rest of the sequence might be tricky - what is F, NF, etc.

 

As a consequence, you probably have to pass x Kxx AJxxx Axxx. A weak 55 will have to play at the 4 level (you need to be able to stop there).

[tazbierek]

TBH i play 1m 2NT as 15-17 or 18-19 and 3c is like standard stayman

[Stephen Tu]

Depends on what 2nt means, obviously. I've seen treatments like 2nt = GF, can have 4 cd major, 3c = stayman recommended from the likes of Kantar, doesn't seem unreasonable to me although I've never played that way.

 

But if 2nt is NF, I think it's way more common, standard, and way more useful, for 3C to be NF. There are a *lot* of hands opener can have that want to play a minor partial in preference to 2nt or 3nt, and logically there's no way to play in 3C unless 3c is NF.

 

OTOH, if you want to explore for 3nt/5m, and want to ask partner's opinion, you don't really need 3c as F, IMO. You can bid 3M with shortness then suggest clubs if partner doesn't care for 3nt.

[mikeh]

In my serious partnerships, we play 1D 2N as 13-15, gf, no major. That allows 3C as expressing doubt about 3N (else bid 3N) which doubt may be based only on shape or both shape and strength…ie either concern that 5m is safer than 3N (our methods are aimed primarily at imps but of course at mps we’d be more likely to bid 3N) or hope that a minor suit slam may be biddable.

 

I see a lot of people play 2N as 11-12. I agree with Stephen that in such a method, 3C should be an offer to play 3m. With game values, bid 3N, 3M (give up on showing 5=6) or 4m, forcing